Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of tendon dysfunction?

• A. Digitalis
• B. Niacin
• C. Tetracycline
• D. Fluoroquinolones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluoroquinolones are known to be associated with tendon dysfunction or rupture. These drugs can weaken the tendons, leading to potential issues such as tendonitis or even tendon rupture. It is essential for healthcare providers to be cautious when prescribing fluoroquinolones, especially in patients who may be at higher risk for tendon-related complications.

2. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. The nurse should expect to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Bone marrow suppression
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Monitoring for signs of decreased blood cell counts is crucial to prevent complications. Insomnia (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with methotrexate use for Rheumatoid Arthritis.

3. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

• A. Flumazenil
• B. Methylene blue
• C. Deferoxamine
• D. Alkalinize urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.

4. A healthcare professional is educating a client about the adverse effects of Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Lactic acidosis.
• B. Hypoglycemia.
• C. Hyperlipidemia.
• D. Weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but severe side effect of Metformin, particularly in individuals with renal or liver issues. It is crucial for clients taking Metformin to be aware of the symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, stomach discomfort, and feeling cold. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Metformin but can occur when combined with other antidiabetic medications. Choice C, hyperlipidemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Metformin. Choice D, weight gain, is not associated with Metformin use; in fact, Metformin is often associated with weight loss or weight neutrality.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, leading to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Enalapril. Enalapril does not typically affect glucose levels, so hypoglycemia (Choice C) is not a common concern with this medication. Enalapril does not directly impact calcium levels, so hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect.

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