Nursing Elites

1. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT:

• A. Hypertension
• B. Heart Failure
• C. Hypotension
• D. Diabetic nephropathy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors are commonly used in the treatment of hypertension, heart failure, and diabetic nephropathy due to their ability to reduce blood pressure, improve heart function, and protect the kidneys. However, they are not indicated for hypotension as they can further lower blood pressure, worsening the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A, hypertension, is correct as ACE inhibitors are a first-line treatment for this condition. Choice B, heart failure, is also correct as ACE inhibitors help improve heart function in patients with heart failure. Choice D, diabetic nephropathy, is correct as ACE inhibitors can slow the progression of kidney damage in diabetic patients.

2. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.

3. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

4. When teaching parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Apply one patch once per day.
• B. Leave the patch on for 9 hours.
• C. Apply the patch to the child's waistline.
• D. Use the opened tray within 6 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, the patch should be left on for 9 hours per day to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. This duration helps maintain a consistent level of the drug in the child's system. Incorrect options: A) Applying one patch once per day is not the correct dosing regimen for transdermal Methylphenidate. C) The patch should not be applied to the child's waistline as it is recommended to apply it to a clean, dry area. D) Using the opened tray within 6 months is not directly related to the administration of transdermal Methylphenidate.

5. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

• A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
• B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
• C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
• D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.

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