Nursing Elites

1. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Cough
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes this cough as an adverse effect. It is important for the client to monitor for this symptom and notify their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated adverse effects of Lisinopril.

2. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

3. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.

4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. What instruction should be included by the nurse during discharge?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. Avoid sun exposure.
• D. Limit fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase intake of foods high in potassium. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. Increasing the intake of foods rich in potassium can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination. Choice C is irrelevant to the medication. Choice D is also incorrect as Furosemide is a diuretic and may require increased, not limited, fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

5. What is the pharmacological class of Lithium?

• A. Antidiabetics, biguanides
• B. Mood stabilizers
• C. Antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants
• D. Vascular headache suppressants

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is classified as a mood stabilizer due to its primary use in managing bipolar disorder, where it helps stabilize mood swings and prevent episodes of mania and depression. While it can have other effects on the body, its main therapeutic role lies in its mood-stabilizing properties. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not classified as antidiabetics, biguanides, antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants, or vascular headache suppressants. Its main pharmacological class is mood stabilizers.

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