a nurse is teaching a client who is starting therapy with lisinopril which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to m
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes this cough as an adverse effect. It is important for the client to monitor for this symptom and notify their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated adverse effects of Lisinopril.

2. The client makes which statement about lifestyle changes to reduce the development and progression of coronary artery disease that indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client stating, 'As long as I exercise, stress at my job will not bother me,' indicates a misunderstanding of the relationship between exercise and stress management. It is important to clarify that while exercise can help reduce stress, it may not eliminate all stressors, especially those related to work. Further teaching is needed to ensure the client understands the multifactorial approach required to address stress and its impact on coronary artery disease.

3. A healthcare provider is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client who has severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, acts on beta1 receptors in the heart, leading to increased myocardial contractility. This positive inotropic effect results in improved cardiac output, which is beneficial for a client with severe heart failure. Dopamine does not typically cause lowered heart rate, decreased conduction through the AV node, or vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels at low doses.

4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as placing the client at risk for lactic acidosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is known to have a risk of causing lactic acidosis, particularly in clients with renal impairment or predisposing conditions. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use that can be life-threatening. Metoprolol, Lisinopril, and Insulin do not have a known association with lactic acidosis. Healthcare professionals should monitor clients prescribed metformin carefully, especially those with risk factors, to detect and manage lactic acidosis promptly.

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