a nurse is teaching a client who is starting therapy with lisinopril which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to m
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes this cough as an adverse effect. It is important for the client to monitor for this symptom and notify their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated adverse effects of Lisinopril.

2. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

3. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.

4. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL, which is rounded up to 0.8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 0.8 mL per dose of heparin. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect as it is the exact calculated volume but needs to be rounded up. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculated volume for the desired dose of heparin.

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