ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.
2. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- A. Intestinal ileus
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Delirium
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.
3. A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
- B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
- C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
- D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To verify the trough levels of a medication accurately, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of the medication. The trough level represents the lowest concentration of the medication in the bloodstream, typically right before the next dose is due. This timing ensures an accurate assessment of the drug's concentration in the body at its lowest point, aiding in determining the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity levels. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for 24 hours would not provide the trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect as obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level.
4. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?
- A. Shuffling gait
- B. Neck spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Impotence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.
5. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.
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