a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension which of the following instructions should the nurse incl
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so engaging in activities like driving that require alertness should be avoided until the individual understands how the medication affects them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect of drowsiness associated with clonidine that could impair driving abilities. Discontinuing the medication if a rash develops, expecting increased salivation, or stopping the medication for dry mouth are not primary concerns related to clonidine therapy for hypertension.

2. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include when teaching a client prescribed Omeprazole is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is most effective when taken before meals as it works by reducing the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Choice B is incorrect because a rapid heart rate is not a common side effect of Omeprazole. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to increase intake of high-calcium foods with Omeprazole. Choice D is also incorrect as Omeprazole does not typically cause urine discoloration.

3. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified as Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is important for the client to inform the provider if they plan to become pregnant because the medication may need to be adjusted or changed to ensure the safety of the fetus. This communication allows for appropriate monitoring and adjustments to be made to the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as zolpidem is a short-acting medication, and it does not require a full 6 hours for sleep. Choice D is incorrect because zolpidem can be taken with or without food, so taking it with a bedtime snack is not contraindicated.

4. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia, as it is an adverse effect of leuprolide due to decreased testosterone levels. Leuprolide works by decreasing testosterone production, which can lead to gynecomastia, the development of male breast tissue. Monitoring for this side effect is essential for early detection and intervention.

5. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common adverse effect of lisinopril is a persistent dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause irritation in the respiratory tract, leading to a cough. Monitoring for a persistent cough is essential as it may indicate a serious adverse effect that requires medical attention. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of lisinopril. Headache (Choice C) and dry mouth (Choice D) are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Cough.

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