ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
- B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
- C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
- D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so engaging in activities like driving that require alertness should be avoided until the individual understands how the medication affects them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect of drowsiness associated with clonidine that could impair driving abilities. Discontinuing the medication if a rash develops, expecting increased salivation, or stopping the medication for dry mouth are not primary concerns related to clonidine therapy for hypertension.
2. A caregiver is being instructed by the healthcare provider of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. You can take this medication to relieve an acute asthma attack.'
- B. Tremors are a potential adverse effect of this medication.'
- C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
- D. This medication can potentially slow the rate of skeletal growth.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors are a possible adverse effect of Albuterol due to its stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles. It is important for the healthcare provider to educate the caregiver about potential side effects to enhance safety and monitoring of the adolescent client.
3. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your fluid intake.
- C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.
4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?
- A. Angina
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fluid retention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.
5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause a non-productive cough due to its effect on bradykinin levels. The client should be advised to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to consider alternative treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not typically associated with Enalapril use.
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