Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so engaging in activities like driving that require alertness should be avoided until the individual understands how the medication affects them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect of drowsiness associated with clonidine that could impair driving abilities. Discontinuing the medication if a rash develops, expecting increased salivation, or stopping the medication for dry mouth are not primary concerns related to clonidine therapy for hypertension.

2. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

3. A client has a prescription for digoxin. The client should be monitored for which of the following findings as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Visual disturbances
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as yellow-tinged vision or seeing halos around lights, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. These symptoms should be reported immediately to healthcare providers for further evaluation and management. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not common manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances.

4. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
• B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
• C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate of 22/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.

5. Which of the following conditions is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. CHF
• B. HTN
• C. Nephritis
• D. Hypercalciuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nephritis is not commonly treated with Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is primarily used for managing hypertension (HTN) and congestive heart failure (CHF) by reducing blood pressure and fluid retention. It is not a standard treatment for nephritis, which involves inflammation of the kidneys. Hypercalciuria, characterized by excessive calcium excretion in the urine, is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide either.

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