ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A nurse is providing teaching for a male client who has Schizophrenia and is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Add extra snacks to your diet to prevent weight loss.
- B. Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.
- C. You may begin to have mild seizures while taking this medication.
- D. This medication is likely to increase your libido.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.' Gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea can occur due to an increase in prolactin levels while taking risperidone. The client should inform the provider if these manifestations occur. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Adding extra snacks to the diet to prevent weight loss is not a specific instruction related to risperidone. Seizures are not a common side effect of risperidone, so the statement about mild seizures is inaccurate. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like erectile dysfunction rather than increasing libido, making choice D incorrect.
2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.
3. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the patch each evening.
- B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
- C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
- D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.
4. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect a rapid heart rate.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client about Metoclopramide is to report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements. Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness or involuntary movements. It is essential for clients to notify their healthcare provider if they experience these symptoms to receive appropriate management.
5. Which of the following types of insulin is classified as 'long-acting'?
- A. Lispro (Humalog)
- B. NPH (Humulin N)
- C. Regular insulin (Humulin R)
- D. Glargine (Lantus)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus). Glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin due to its slow, steady release over an extended period, making it suitable for basal insulin requirements. It has a duration of action that can last up to 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood sugar levels throughout the day. Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin, NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin, and Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, so they are not classified as long-acting insulins.
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