ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What key point should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
- D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism." It is crucial for patients to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots while taking tamoxifen. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen, but they are not the key point to emphasize. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are potential side effects of tamoxifen but not the key point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss.
2. Which of the following is not included in the care plan of a client with moderate cognitive impairment involving dementia of the Alzheimer’s type?
- A. Daily structured schedule
- B. Positive reinforcement for performing activities of daily living
- C. Stimulating environment
- D. Use of validation techniques
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the care plan for a client with moderate cognitive impairment involving Alzheimer's type dementia, a stimulating environment is not included as it can potentially increase confusion. Therefore, it is important to provide a familiar, structured, and predictable environment to reduce stress and disorientation. Daily structured schedules help in maintaining routine and familiarity, positive reinforcement encourages engagement in activities, and validation techniques help in communicating effectively with the client by acknowledging their feelings and reality orientation.
3. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?
- A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
- B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
- C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
- D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a newly inserted pacemaker. What is the most important nursing action post-procedure?
- A. Monitor the insertion site for signs of infection.
- B. Educate the client about activity restrictions.
- C. Monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm.
- D. Assess the client's lung sounds for signs of fluid overload.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Post-procedure, monitoring the insertion site for signs of infection is crucial because it helps in early detection of any potential complications such as infection. While educating the client about activity restrictions, monitoring the client's heart rate and rhythm, and assessing lung sounds for signs of fluid overload are important aspects of care, the immediate priority post-procedure is to prevent infection at the insertion site, which could lead to serious complications.
5. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
- A. B cell deficiency
- B. T cell deficiency
- C. Combined immunodeficiency
- D. Complement deficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
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