Nursing Elites

1. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

• A. A normal leukocyte count
• B. A high leukocyte count
• C. A low leukocyte count
• D. Another term for leukopenia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

2. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

• A. Urinalysis
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Cystoscopy
• D. Intravenous pyelogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

3. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

• A. Clarithromycin
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
• D. Azithromycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

4. A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?

• A. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
• B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• C. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
• D. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.

5. A 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller presents with facial pain and severe headache. She reports that she sometimes feels the pain in her neck or ear and that it is particularly bad during very busy times at the airport. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Migraine headache
• B. Cluster headache
• C. Temporomandibular joint syndrome
• D. Sinus headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller and presents with facial pain and severe headache that sometimes radiates to her neck or ear, aggravated by stress, is Temporomandibular joint syndrome. This syndrome involves pain in the jaw joint and the muscles controlling jaw movement, which can radiate to the surrounding areas like the neck and ear. Stress and clenching of the jaw commonly exacerbate the symptoms. Migraine headache (choice A) typically presents with other symptoms like nausea, sensitivity to light or sound, and can be triggered by various factors, not just stress. Cluster headache (choice B) is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye with associated autonomic symptoms. Sinus headache (choice D) is usually associated with sinus congestion or infection, presenting with facial pressure or pain, often worsened by bending forward.

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