Nursing Elites

1. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

• A. A normal leukocyte count
• B. A high leukocyte count
• C. A low leukocyte count
• D. Another term for leukopenia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

2. When assessing for potential signs and symptoms of cryptococcosis in a patient with HIV being treated with Amphotericin B, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?

• A. Neurological assessment
• B. Functional assessment
• C. Nutritional assessment
• D. Cardiac assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with cryptococcosis and HIV, neurological assessment should be prioritized because cryptococcosis commonly affects the central nervous system, leading to symptoms such as headache, confusion, and altered mental status. This assessment is crucial in monitoring for any neurological complications and guiding appropriate interventions. Functional assessment focuses on the patient's ability to perform activities of daily living and is not directly associated with cryptococcosis. Nutritional assessment is important for overall health but is not the priority when assessing for cryptococcosis. Cardiac assessment is not a priority in cryptococcosis as the primary manifestations are related to the central nervous system.

3. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

4. A patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder?

• A. Lymphocytes recognize the host's tissue as foreign.
• B. Erythrocytes destroy the T cells of the host.
• C. The involution of the thymus gland increases the risk of infection.
• D. The differential decreases the sedimentation rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with an autoimmune disorder, a viral infection can trigger an immune response where lymphocytes mistakenly recognize the host's tissue as foreign. This can lead to an exacerbation of the autoimmune condition. Choice B is incorrect because erythrocytes are not responsible for destroying T cells. Choice C is incorrect as thymus involution weakens the immune response, making the patient more susceptible to infections rather than increasing the infection risk. Choice D is unrelated to the potential effects of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder.

5. Which of the following women are at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?

• A. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of high-risk human papillomavirus
• B. A 45-year-old woman who is obese and has menstrual irregularities with periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods.
• C. A 40-year-old woman who is overweight and has hypertension.
• D. A 55-year-old woman who smokes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Obesity and irregular menstrual cycles, including periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods, are significant risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer. Choice A is less likely as postmenopausal status reduces the risk. Choice C is not directly associated with a high risk of endometrial cancer. Choice D, smoking, is more strongly linked to other types of cancers like lung cancer rather than endometrial cancer.

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