ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. Under which category does a violation of the nurse practice act fall?
- A. Juvenile offenses
- B. Felonies
- C. Misdemeanors
- D. Torts
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A violation of the nurse practice act falls under the category of tort. Tort refers to civil wrongs that cause harm or loss to another person, and a violation of the nurse practice act can result in a civil lawsuit against the nurse for negligence or malpractice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a violation of the nurse practice act does not fall under juvenile offenses, felonies, or misdemeanors, but rather under civil wrongs known as torts.
2. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to increase dietary fiber.
- B. Maintain the client on a low-residue diet.
- C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a high-fiber diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, the nurse should maintain the client on a low-residue diet. This diet helps to minimize bowel irritation by reducing the volume and frequency of stools. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to increase dietary fiber (Choice A) and eat a high-fiber diet (Choice D) can worsen symptoms and aggravate bowel inflammation in Crohn's disease. Providing the client with frequent high-calorie snacks (Choice C) may not be appropriate during an exacerbation since high-fat foods can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.
3. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN is awaiting the next container. What fluid should the nurse infuse in the interim?
- A. Dextrose 5% in water
- B. 0.9% sodium chloride
- C. Dextrose 10% in water
- D. Lactated Ringer’s solution
Correct answer: 0.9% sodium chloride
Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. When a client receiving TPN is awaiting the next container, infusing 0.9% sodium chloride is the appropriate choice to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. Dextrose solutions are not recommended as they do not provide sufficient nutrition. Lactated Ringer’s solution contains electrolytes but lacks essential nutrients found in TPN, making it an inadequate choice during the delay in TPN delivery.
4. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.
5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.
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