Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering childhood vaccinations
• B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
• C. Routine screening for hypertension
• D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

2. Which of the following are significant benefits to an organization that is considering adoption of a practice partnership model? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Clients express reduced satisfaction.
• B. It is less expensive to implement than other models.
• C. Continuity of care is facilitated.
• D. Leadership is well accepted.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continuity of care is facilitated. One of the significant benefits of a practice partnership model is that it facilitates continuity of care, which can lead to better outcomes for clients. Choice A is incorrect as clients would not express reduced satisfaction with this model; in fact, greater client satisfaction is a benefit. Choice B is incorrect because the cost-effectiveness of the model is not specified or guaranteed. Choice D is incorrect as the acceptance of leadership is not explicitly mentioned as a significant benefit of this model.

3. The staff nurse is caring for the client with total accountability and is in continual communication with the client, the family, the physicians, and other members of the health care team. This type of nursing delivery system is known as:

• A. Total patient care
• B. Qualified nurse case managers
• C. Established critical pathways
• D. Quality management system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Total patient care. Total patient care is the original model of nursing care delivery, in which one RN has complete responsibility for all aspects of care for one or more patients. In this system, the nurse is accountable for the client's care and maintains continuous communication with the client, their family, physicians, and other healthcare team members. Choice B, Qualified nurse case managers, refers to nurses who coordinate care but do not provide direct hands-on patient care. Choice C, Established critical pathways, involves predefined care plans for specific conditions but does not imply direct accountability as in total patient care. Choice D, Quality management system, relates to processes to ensure and enhance the quality of care but is not specifically about the direct provision of patient care.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to delegate client care tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the healthcare professional delegate?

• A. Confirming that a client's pain has decreased after receiving an analgesic
• B. Ambulating a client who is postoperative
• C. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a client
• D. Demonstrating the use of an incentive spirometer to a client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is option A: 'Confirming that a client's pain has decreased after receiving an analgesic.' This task involves assessing the effectiveness of the medication, which can be delegated to the assistive personnel. Options B, C, and D involve skills that should be performed by licensed healthcare professionals due to their complexity and potential risks if not done correctly. Ambulating a postoperative client requires monitoring for signs of distress or complications, inserting a urinary catheter involves an invasive procedure with infection risks, and demonstrating the use of medical devices like an incentive spirometer requires specialized knowledge to ensure correct usage.

5. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a hemoglobin A1C of 12%
• B. 23-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL
• C. 40-year-old who is pregnant and has an oral glucose tolerance test result of 202 mg/dL
• D. 50-year-old who uses exenatide (Byetta) and is complaining of acute abdominal pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL (hypoglycemia) needs immediate attention. Hypoglycemia is an emergency situation that requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse effects such as seizures or loss of consciousness. Assessing and managing this patient first is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations requiring urgent intervention like severe hypoglycemia does. While a high hemoglobin A1C level (choice A), an abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result (choice C), and acute abdominal pain (choice D) are important issues, they do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life compared to severe hypoglycemia.

Similar Questions