which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam

1. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

2. Which of the following best describes the concept of shared governance?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Shared decision making.' Shared governance in healthcare involves empowering nurses to participate in decision-making processes that affect their practice. This model fosters collaboration, transparency, and accountability among healthcare providers. Choice A, 'Top-down management,' is incorrect because shared governance promotes a bottom-up approach. Choice B, 'Nurse-led committees,' is partially correct as it is a component of shared governance, but the core concept is broader and encompasses shared decision making beyond committee leadership. Choice D, 'Hierarchical structure,' is incorrect as shared governance aims to flatten hierarchies and distribute decision-making authority among healthcare team members.

3. Which type of HMO contracts with two or more IPAs (Independent Practice Associations)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Network model. A network model of HMOs contracts with two or more IPAs. In a network model, the HMO contracts with multiple IPAs to provide healthcare services to its members, offering a wider range of choices and flexibility in selecting healthcare providers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the staff model involves employing physicians and healthcare providers directly, the point of service model allows members to seek care both in-network and out-of-network, and the group model is not specifically associated with contracting IPAs.

4. One of the critical elements in interviewing is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Developing an interview guide is a critical element in interviewing as it allows for a systematic approach. An interview guide helps the interviewer stay on track, ensures important topics are covered, and provides consistency in questioning. Options A, B, and C are not as crucial as developing an interview guide. Time management during the interview is important but not the critical element being addressed in this question. Involving others may be beneficial in some cases, but it is not a fundamental element of interviewing. While choosing a suitable interview location is essential for a conducive environment, it is not as central as having a structured interview guide.

5. Which of the following is one of the sources used to determine the reason for voluntary turnover?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Exit interviewing.' Exit interviews are a crucial source used to determine the reasons for voluntary turnover. During exit interviews, departing employees provide valuable insights into their reasons for leaving, which can help organizations identify areas for improvement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Following-up phone calls and benchmarking are not commonly used methods for determining the reasons behind voluntary turnover. While employee questioning can be a part of the exit interview process, the primary source mentioned in the context of voluntary turnover is exit interviewing.

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