a nurse is admitting a client who has rubella which of the following types of transmissionbased precautions should the nurse initiate
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1. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has rubella. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Protective environment.' Rubella requires placing the client in a protective environment due to its airborne precautions. Airborne precautions are typically used for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA. Droplet precautions are implemented for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza. Therefore, in the case of rubella, airborne precautions in a protective environment are necessary.

2. Integrated health care systems function in a variety of models. Which of the following is a common characteristic of all systems?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Integrated health care systems are designed to provide a whole continuum of care, which includes preventive, primary, specialty, hospital, and long-term care services. This integration ensures that patients receive comprehensive and coordinated care across different healthcare settings. Choice A is incorrect because integrated systems aim to provide a wide range of services, not selective care only. Choice C is incorrect as integrated systems extend care beyond hospital settings. Choice D is incorrect as these systems offer care across various settings, not limited to primary care only.

3. Which of the following is an example of a conflict of interest in nursing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nurse working for two competing healthcare organizations represents a conflict of interest as it may affect impartiality. Choice A is incorrect as accepting gifts from a patient may be a violation of ethical standards, but it is not a conflict of interest. Choice C is incorrect as disclosing patient information without consent is a breach of confidentiality, not a conflict of interest. Choice D is incorrect as delegating tasks improperly relates to professional competence, not a conflict of interest.

4. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

5. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaccination programs are considered a primary prevention strategy in public health because they aim to prevent the occurrence of diseases before they occur. Screening for diabetes (choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy that aims to detect and treat the disease early. Emergency response planning (choice C) is more focused on preparedness and response rather than preventing the initial occurrence of health issues. Chronic disease management (choice D) involves treating and controlling diseases that have already developed, making it a tertiary prevention strategy rather than primary.

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