which of the following are not treated with nifedipine
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored

1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.

2. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

3. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

4. What is the correct definition of drug absorption?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct definition of drug absorption is the movement of a drug from the site of administration into various tissues of the body. It is the process by which a drug is taken up and enters the systemic circulation. Choice B describes the pharmacokinetics of drugs, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, but it is not a specific definition of drug absorption. Choice C is unrelated to drug absorption, as it refers to over-the-counter drugs. Choice D is too vague and does not specifically address the process of drug absorption.

5. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common adverse effect of lisinopril is a persistent dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause irritation in the respiratory tract, leading to a cough. Monitoring for a persistent cough is essential as it may indicate a serious adverse effect that requires medical attention. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of lisinopril. Headache (Choice C) and dry mouth (Choice D) are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Cough.

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