ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. The client makes which statement about lifestyle changes to reduce the development and progression of coronary artery disease that indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. “I will check my weight regularly for any gain or loss.”
- B. “I’ll make sure to take my high blood pressure medications.”
- C. “I am attending a smoking cessation class.”
- D. “As long as I exercise, stress at my job will not bother me.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client stating, 'As long as I exercise, stress at my job will not bother me,' indicates a misunderstanding of the relationship between exercise and stress management. It is important to clarify that while exercise can help reduce stress, it may not eliminate all stressors, especially those related to work. Further teaching is needed to ensure the client understands the multifactorial approach required to address stress and its impact on coronary artery disease.
2. Which of the following is not a side effect of Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Difficulty breathing
- C. Dry oral cavity
- D. Lethargic behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clonidine, a Sympathoplegic, typically causes hypotension rather than hypertension. The other side effects associated with Clonidine include dry oral cavity, lethargic behavior, and difficulty breathing, making them incorrect choices in this context.
3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.
4. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Hypertension
- C. Excessive perspiration
- D. Fecal impaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.
5. When educating a client with a new prescription for Atorvastatin to treat Hyperlipidemia, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
- D. Expect your stools to turn clay-colored.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include when educating a client with a new prescription for Atorvastatin to treat Hyperlipidemia is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of atorvastatin, leading to an elevated risk of serious side effects such as liver damage and muscle problems. It is essential for the client to be aware of this potential interaction and to follow the nurse's advice to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Atorvastatin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Atorvastatin in the morning is a common recommendation but not the priority over avoiding grapefruit juice. Increasing intake of green, leafy vegetables is generally a healthy dietary choice but is not specific to the medication. Expecting stools to turn clay-colored is not a common side effect of Atorvastatin.
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