ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice B
1. Which of the following are common symptoms of schizophrenia? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Delusions
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Organized speech
- D. Catatonia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Common symptoms of schizophrenia include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and catatonia. Organized speech is not a typical symptom of schizophrenia. In schizophrenia, individuals often exhibit disorganized or incoherent speech patterns, rather than organized speech. Euphoria is not typically associated with schizophrenia, making it an incorrect choice.
2. What instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?
- A. Explain that exacerbations will not occur in the summer
- B. Use nicotine gum to help quit smoking
- C. Wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure
- D. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This instruction is crucial for managing Raynaud’s phenomenon as it helps prevent vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is not directly related to managing Raynaud’s phenomenon. Choice D is also irrelevant as direct sunlight exposure does not typically worsen symptoms of Raynaud’s phenomenon.
3. To promote independence, which of these is the best intervention to implement?
- A. Perform the client’s activities of daily living for them.
- B. Speak directly in front of the client so they can read your lips well.
- C. Give the client their washcloth and toothbrush and leave the room.
- D. Allow the client to perform the activities of daily living they are able to do.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to allow the client to perform the activities of daily living they are able to do. This intervention promotes independence by encouraging clients to maintain their functional abilities. Choice A is incorrect as performing the client's activities of daily living for them does not empower independence. Choice B is irrelevant to promoting independence. Choice C is not actively promoting independence as it involves leaving the client alone without any guidance or support.
4. Following a stroke, a client has been started on clopidogrel (Plavix). Why is this medication being administered?
- A. To prevent stroke in high-risk patients, such as those with prosthetic heart valves
- B. To decrease blood pressure
- C. To increase heart rate
- D. To provide antiplatelet activity in patients who cannot tolerate aspirin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots. It is commonly used in patients who have had a stroke and cannot tolerate aspirin due to allergies or intolerances. Choosing clopidogrel in these cases helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of recurrent strokes.
5. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.
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