ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A nurse is assessing a patient with schizophrenia who is experiencing delusions. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Agree with the patient's delusions to avoid confrontation.
- B. Encourage the patient to explore the basis of the delusions.
- C. Engage the patient in reality-based activities.
- D. Ask the patient to explain the delusions in detail.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention when assessing a patient with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to engage the patient in reality-based activities. This intervention helps distract the patient from the delusions and reorients them to the present, promoting grounding in reality. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with delusions can reinforce them and hinder treatment. Choice B may exacerbate the delusions by delving deeper into their basis. Choice D may not be beneficial as it focuses solely on the delusions without addressing the need to ground the patient in reality.
2. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Weight loss
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Paroxetine, an SSRI commonly prescribed for OCD, can lead to sexual dysfunction as a side effect. Patients should be educated about this potential adverse effect to ensure they are aware and can seek appropriate management if needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because insomnia, weight loss, and hypertension are not typically associated with paroxetine use as common side effects in patients with OCD.
3. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Short-term memory loss
- B. Headache
- C. Confusion
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can have side effects such as short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, particularly antipsychotics.
4. Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?
- A. Obesity
- B. Generalized anxiety disorder
- C. Hypertension
- D. Grief
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the provider expect the client to exhibit?
- A. A lack of remorse for wrongdoing
- B. A fear of gaining weight
- C. A need for constant reassurance
- D. A willingness to take responsibility for actions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically exhibit a lack of remorse for their actions. They may disregard the rights of others, engage in deceitful and manipulative behaviors, and show a consistent pattern of irresponsibility and disregard for social norms. This behavior is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical behaviors associated with antisocial personality disorder. Fear of gaining weight is more indicative of an eating disorder rather than antisocial personality disorder. Needing constant reassurance is not a common trait of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Additionally, individuals with this disorder often avoid taking responsibility for their actions.
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