Nursing Elites

1. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
• B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
• C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
• D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

2. A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage the client to express their feelings
• B. Teach the client relaxation techniques
• C. Promote regular physical activity
• D. Encourage the use of caffeine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with GAD should include encouraging the client to express their feelings, teaching relaxation techniques, and promoting regular physical activity. Caffeine should be avoided as it can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Stimulants like caffeine can increase feelings of restlessness and nervousness, making it counterproductive in managing anxiety. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting emotional expression, relaxation, and physical well-being, respectively. Choice D, encouraging the use of caffeine, is incorrect as it can worsen anxiety symptoms rather than alleviate them.

3. When providing care for 10-year-old Harper diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which goal should be addressed initially?

• A. Harper will be able to identify feelings through the use of play therapy.
• B. Harper and her parents will have access to protective resources available through social services.
• C. Harper will demonstrate the effective use of relaxation techniques to restore a sense of control over disturbing thoughts.
• D. Harper and her parents will demonstrate an understanding of the personal human response to traumatic events.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The initial goal when caring for a child with PTSD like Harper is to address restoring a sense of control over disturbing thoughts by teaching relaxation techniques. This approach helps the child manage their distressing emotions and promotes a feeling of empowerment in dealing with their condition.

4. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

5. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of sublimation?

• A. A woman channels her energy into a new hobby after a breakup.
• B. A man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine.
• C. A student focuses on studying to avoid thinking about a recent argument.
• D. An athlete channels competitive impulses into a successful sports career.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities. In this scenario, the man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine, which is a positive and constructive way of managing his emotions. Choices A, C, and D do not fully align with sublimation as they do not involve redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable outlets, unlike the man's action in choice B.

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