Nursing Elites

1. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
• B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
• C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
• D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

2. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?

• A. Projection
• B. Rationalization
• C. Regression
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is using rationalization, a common defense mechanism. Rationalization involves creating logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. In this scenario, the client is justifying excessive drinking by linking it to hard work and the need for relaxation, masking the true underlying issue of alcohol abuse. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development, and sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities, none of which are demonstrated in the client's statement.

3. Which of the following are characteristics of borderline personality disorder? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Intense fear of abandonment
• B. Unstable relationships
• C. Impulsivity
• D. Grandiosity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by an intense fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, and chronic feelings of emptiness. Grandiosity, which involves an exaggerated sense of self-importance and superiority, is more commonly associated with narcissistic personality disorder rather than borderline personality disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

4. In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?

• A. Clonazepam
• B. Buspirone
• C. Propranolol
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.

5. In addition to antianxiety agents, which classification of drugs is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and anxiety disorders?

• A. Antipsychotics
• B. Mood stabilizers
• C. Antidepressants
• D. Cholinesterase inhibitors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Antidepressants, especially selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), are frequently used in the treatment of anxiety disorders. These medications help alleviate symptoms by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain associated with mood regulation and anxiety.

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