ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. Based on universally-accepted color codes, what color would you expect a tank containing nitrous oxide (laughing gas) to have?
- A. Red
- B. Blue
- C. Green
- D. Orange
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red. In the medical field, tanks containing nitrous oxide (laughing gas) are typically color-coded with a specific color for easy identification. Nitrous oxide tanks are commonly labeled with a red color code. This color-coding system helps healthcare providers quickly and accurately identify the contents of the tanks, reducing the risk of errors in administering gases to patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the universally-accepted color for nitrous oxide tanks is red, not blue, green, or orange.
2. A baby born between the seventh and eighth months of pregnancy __________.
- A. is just as healthy as a full-term baby
- B. usually needs oxygen assistance to breathe
- C. only has about a 10 percent survival rate
- D. is considered small-for-date
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A baby born between the seventh and eighth months of pregnancy is considered premature. Premature babies are born before they are fully developed and may need assistance with breathing, including oxygen. They are at a higher risk for complications compared to full-term babies. Choice A is incorrect because premature babies are at a higher risk for health issues compared to full-term babies. Choice C is incorrect as modern medical advancements have significantly increased the survival rate of premature babies. Choice D is incorrect as being small-for-date does not solely depend on the gestational age at birth.
3. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct answer: This could result in profound bleeding.
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
4. An anatomical section that separates the body into right and left portions is a _______ section.
- A. frontal
- B. transverse
- C. coronal
- D. sagittal
Correct answer: sagittal
Rationale: The correct answer is 'sagittal.' A sagittal section divides the body into right and left portions. Choice A, 'frontal,' is incorrect as it divides the body into front and back portions. Choice B, 'transverse,' divides the body into upper and lower portions. Choice C, 'coronal,' divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. Therefore, 'sagittal' is the most appropriate term for a section separating the body into right and left portions.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the TPN tubing every 48 hours.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- D. Monitor the client's weight every 72 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This action helps reduce the risk of infection because the high glucose content of TPN promotes bacterial growth. Choice A is incorrect as changing the tubing every 48 hours would not provide adequate infection prevention. Option C, monitoring urine output, is important for assessing renal function but is not directly related to preventing TPN-related infections. Option D, monitoring weight, is essential for assessing nutritional status but does not directly address infection prevention in TPN administration.