ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. Which nursing action(s) can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing?
- A. Release of client health information to a client’s neighbor
- B. Delegation of a dressing change to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)
- C. Release of client health information to the client’s durable power of attorney
- D. A, B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Disclosing client health information to unauthorized individuals, such as a client's neighbor (choice A) or improper delegation of nursing tasks to unlicensed personnel like UAPs (choice B), are violations of patient confidentiality and safety. Releasing client health information to the client's durable power of attorney (choice C) is a legal and appropriate action, not warranting disciplinary action. Therefore, choices A and B can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing, making option D the correct answer.
2. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
- B. Withdraw TV privileges if the client does not attend group therapy.
- C. Place the client in seclusion during periods of anxiety.
- D. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.
4. What findings on physical assessment of a neonate would indicate the need for further evaluation?
- A. Nystagmus
- B. Epstein pearls
- C. Low-set ears
- D. Positive Babinski reflex
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Low-set ears in a neonate suggest major abnormalities and should prompt further evaluation. The correct alignment of the top of the pinnae of the ear with the outer canthus of the eye is crucial. Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, is common in newborns and often resolves on its own. Epstein pearls, small cysts on the hard palate, are insignificant and disappear over time. A positive Babinski reflex is normal in infants up to 1 year of age. Therefore, the presence of low-set ears is the most concerning finding that requires immediate attention.
5. What information should be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding appropriate play activities for this age?
- A. Give large push-pull toys for kinetic stimulation
- B. Place a cradle gym across the crib to help develop fine motor skills
- C. Provide the child with finger paints to enhance fine motor skills
- D. Provide a stick horse to develop gross motor coordination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Large push-pull toys are suitable for a 12-month-old as they encourage gross motor skills and physical activity, which are crucial for their development at this age.