ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. The client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering?
- A. Paracentesis
- B. Chest tube insertion
- C. Lumbar puncture
- D. Biopsy of the pancreas
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. In the context of a pancreatic pseudocyst rupturing, a chest tube may be needed if the pseudocyst extends into the pleural space, leading to a pleural effusion. Choice A, paracentesis, involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not the pleural space. Choice C, lumbar puncture, is a procedure performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant in this scenario. Choice D, biopsy of the pancreas, is not indicated in the immediate management of a ruptured pseudocyst.
2. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?
- A. Dorsal recumbent
- B. Side lying
- C. Supine
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.
3. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. This occurs due to the medication's stimulatory effect on beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Flushing (Choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (Choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom albuterol aims to alleviate. Hypotension (Choice D) is not typically associated with albuterol use; instead, albuterol can lead to an increase in blood pressure.
4. After undergoing a pericardiocentesis, which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour
- B. Evaluate the client’s cardiac rhythm
- C. Record the amount of fluid removed as output
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following a pericardiocentesis, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor vital signs regularly, evaluate cardiac rhythm, and record the amount of fluid removed as output to detect any complications promptly. These interventions help in ensuring the client's safety and detecting any potential issues early. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' (Choice D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the essential interventions required post-pericardiocentesis. Choices A, B, and C are necessary actions to provide comprehensive care and monitor the client effectively.
5. What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?
- A. High-protein foods
- B. High-fiber foods
- C. High-vitamin K foods
- D. High-calcium foods
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.