the client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures which procedure should the nurse anticipate the hcp ordering
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. In the context of a pancreatic pseudocyst rupturing, a chest tube may be needed if the pseudocyst extends into the pleural space, leading to a pleural effusion. Choice A, paracentesis, involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not the pleural space. Choice C, lumbar puncture, is a procedure performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant in this scenario. Choice D, biopsy of the pancreas, is not indicated in the immediate management of a ruptured pseudocyst.

2. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

3. The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct method described in option C helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, which is crucial after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion. This technique minimizes strain on the back and promotes safe movement. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that could potentially strain the back, increase the risk of injury, or compromise the spinal alignment, making them less optimal for the client recovering from such surgery.

4. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.

5. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is less urgent as occasional unifocal PVCs are common. Choice B is important but can be addressed after the client with an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable compared to a client with potential heart failure symptoms.

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