Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Monitor potassium levels
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?

• A. Position the client supine during feedings.
• B. Administer the feedings over 10 minutes.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed during feedings.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position after feedings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration in clients receiving enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed during feedings. This position helps prevent regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Administering feedings over 10 minutes (Choice B) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Placing the client in a lateral position after feedings (Choice D) does not address the risk of aspiration during the feeding process.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.

• A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
• B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
• C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
• D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Turn the client every 2 hours
• B. Use a donut-shaped cushion when sitting
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 88/min
• C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated, indicating a possible infection or inflammatory response, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client postoperative, so they do not require immediate reporting. Elevated temperature can be a sign of infection or other complications, making it a priority for reporting and further assessment.

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