which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

4. Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.

5. A nurse is caring for an adult client who has prescriptions for multiple medications. Which of the following is an age-related change that increases the risk for adverse effects from these medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prolonged medication half-life. As clients age, their metabolism tends to slow down, leading to a prolonged half-life of medications in the body. This extended presence of drugs can increase the risk for adverse effects as the substances accumulate. Choice A, rapid gastric emptying, is not an age-related change and actually decreases the time medications spend in the stomach, potentially reducing their effectiveness. Choice C, increased medication elimination, is not an age-related change either; in fact, aging can lead to decreased renal function, affecting drug elimination. Choice D, decreased medication sensitivity, is not an age-related change that directly increases the risk for adverse effects; rather, it may lead to requiring higher doses for effectiveness but does not inherently increase the risk of adverse effects.

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