Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Monitor potassium levels
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is receiving radiation therapy for cancer of the larynx. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply heat to the neck to relieve pain.
• B. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush to prevent gum irritation.
• C. Rinse your mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash twice daily.
• D. Wear loose-fitting clothing to protect your skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush to prevent gum irritation in clients undergoing radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer. Radiation therapy can cause oral mucositis and increase the risk of gum irritation, so using a soft-bristle toothbrush is recommended to minimize trauma to the gums and oral mucosa. Applying heat to the neck is contraindicated as it can exacerbate tissue damage caused by radiation. Rinsing the mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash is preferred over an alcohol-based one to prevent drying and irritation of the oral mucosa. Wearing loose-fitting clothing is advised to prevent friction and irritation on the skin, rather than tight-fitting clothing that may cause pressure ulcers or skin breakdown.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication with food.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
• C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.

5. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?

• A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
• B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
• C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
• D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.

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