ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.
2. Which of the following disturbances would cause a client to experience gout?
- A. Serotonin receptors
- B. Uric acid metabolism
- C. Liver function
- D. Cardiac function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gout is caused by a disturbance in uric acid metabolism, leading to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints. Serotonin receptors (Choice A) are not related to gout. Liver function (Choice C) is important for metabolism but is not directly linked to gout development. Cardiac function (Choice D) is primarily related to the heart's functioning and not associated with gout.
3. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.
4. Dr. Singh believes that a basic psychosocial conflict, which is resolved along a continuum from positive to negative, determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Dr. Singh's beliefs are aligned with those of which theorist?
- A. G. Stanley Hall
- B. Sigmund Freud
- C. Erik Erikson
- D. B. F. Skinner
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dr. Singh's beliefs align with Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory of development. Erikson proposed that individuals go through a series of psychosocial stages, with each stage characterized by a basic conflict that must be resolved to achieve healthy development. This conflict is resolved along a continuum from positive to negative outcomes. Choice A, G. Stanley Hall, is incorrect as his work focused on adolescence and evolutionary psychology. Choice B, Sigmund Freud, is incorrect as his psychoanalytic theory is more focused on the unconscious mind and psychosexual stages. Choice D, B. F. Skinner, is incorrect as he is associated with behaviorism and operant conditioning, which is different from Erikson's psychosocial theory.
5. Which of the following is a common side effect of the drug metformin?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Weight gain
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, weight loss. Metformin is commonly associated with weight loss as a side effect rather than weight gain. Metformin works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity, which can lead to weight loss. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, drowsiness, and hypertension are not typically common side effects of metformin.
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