which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease who wanders frequently. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure that the client wears an identification bracelet at all times. This intervention helps staff recognize clients who wander and ensures their safety. Placing the client in a well-lit area (Choice A) may be helpful in some cases but does not directly address the issue of wandering. Keeping the client's bed in the lowest position (Choice C) is important for fall prevention but is not directly related to wandering behavior. Using physical restraints (Choice D) is not recommended as the first-line intervention for wandering and should be avoided due to ethical concerns and potential risks.

3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, baked fish and steamed vegetables. These food choices are low in potassium and phosphorus, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively. Grilled chicken and rice (choice B) may be high in phosphorus, tomato soup with saltine crackers (choice C) is high in sodium, and a peanut butter and jelly sandwich (choice A) contains high levels of potassium, all of which are not ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid drinking fluids with meals. This is because consuming fluids while eating can exacerbate reflux symptoms by increasing stomach distension and contributing to the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. Option A is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help prevent reflux during sleep, not while drinking fluids. Option C is incorrect as consuming three large meals a day can worsen GERD symptoms due to increased gastric distension. Option D is incorrect as lying down after eating can also worsen GERD symptoms by promoting the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.

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