ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor INR
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
- A. Urine output of 20 ml/hr
- B. Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg
- C. FHR pattern with absent variability
- D. Contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds indicate that the rate of infusion should be increased. This pattern suggests weak contractions or intervals that are too far apart, requiring an adjustment to improve labor progress. Option A is incorrect as a low urine output is not directly related to the need for an increase in the oxytocin infusion rate. Option B, Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg, is incorrect because it is a measure of intrauterine pressure and does not determine the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion. Option C, FHR pattern with absent variability, is incorrect as it may indicate fetal distress but does not specifically relate to the need for adjusting the oxytocin infusion rate.
3. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.
4. A client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
- B. Notify the client's support system.
- C. Help the client identify personal strengths.
- D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to confirm the client's perception of the event. In crisis intervention, understanding the client's perspective is crucial as it helps the nurse assess the situation accurately and provide tailored support. This step can also help build rapport and trust with the client. Option B, notifying the client's support system, may be important but should come after assessing the client's perception. Option C, helping the client identify personal strengths, and option D, teaching relaxation techniques, are valuable interventions but should follow the initial step of confirming the client's perception.
5. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about clients designating a health care proxy. Which of the following information should the charge nurse include?
- A. The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so
- B. The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises
- C. The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia
- D. The proxy should manage legal issues for the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the health care proxy can make treatment decisions for the client if the client is under anesthesia. This aligns with the concept of durable power of attorney for health care, where the proxy is authorized to make health care decisions when the client is unable to do so. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the proxy should make health care decisions only when the client is unable to do so. Choice B is incorrect as financial decisions are not typically within the scope of a health care proxy. Choice D is incorrect as managing legal issues is not the primary role of a health care proxy.
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