Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
• B. Heart rate: 95/min.
• C. Sore throat.
• D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer magnesium sulfate.
• B. Place the client in the left lateral position.
• C. Monitor intake and output.
• D. Provide a low-sodium diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.

4. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about using a portable oxygen system. What instruction should the nurse include?

• A. The oxygen should be kept in a storage room when not in use.
• B. Turn off the oxygen when not in use.
• C. Check the oxygen level regularly using a pulse oximeter.
• D. Never leave the oxygen running when transporting a client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the oxygen level regularly using a pulse oximeter. This instruction is crucial as it ensures safe and adequate oxygenation for the client. Option A is incorrect as oxygen should not be stored in a storage room but in a well-ventilated area. Option B is not ideal as oxygen should be left on unless otherwise specified by a healthcare provider. Option D is also important but not directly related to the primary instruction of monitoring oxygen levels.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.

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