which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with hypertension is to limit sodium intake to no more than 1,500 mg per day. This helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is a good recommendation as well, but the primary focus for hypertension management in this scenario is limiting sodium. Choices C and D are incorrect as dairy products and carbohydrates are not directly linked to hypertension.

3. How should a healthcare professional administer a subcutaneous injection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for administering subcutaneous injections is to insert the needle at a 45-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the subcutaneous tissue, which is located just below the skin. Inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, while using a Z-track method is specific to intramuscular injections to prevent leakage of medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle would not reach the subcutaneous tissue effectively.

4. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart rate of 60/min. A heart rate of 60/min is borderline bradycardia, which can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so any further decrease in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are within the normal range and not specifically related to potential digoxin toxicity, so they do not require immediate reporting.

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