Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Which symptom should the nurse expect?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Decreased frequency of urination.
• C. Enuresis.
• D. Diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in school-age children. It is often a presenting symptom due to irritation of the bladder. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more indicative of conditions like nephrotic syndrome or renal disorders. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is not typically associated with urinary tract infections. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of urinary tract infections but may occur due to other reasons like gastrointestinal infections.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.

4. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

5. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection. Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is required?

• A. I can visit someone with chickenpox 5 days after the sores crust.
• B. I should avoid eating foods that contain high folic acid.
• C. I can clean my cat's litter box during pregnancy.
• D. I should wash my hands with hot water for 10 seconds after gardening.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning a cat's litter box during pregnancy can increase the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is correct as the statement indicates understanding of the chickenpox transmission timeline. Choice B is also correct as high folic acid foods are beneficial during pregnancy. Choice D is correct as washing hands with hot water after gardening helps prevent infections.

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