ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client at risk for osteoporosis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid weight-bearing exercises.
- B. I should increase my intake of vitamin D.
- C. I should reduce my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will increase my intake of foods high in calcium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should increase my intake of vitamin D.' Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for calcium absorption, which is essential for bone health and preventing osteoporosis. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (choice A) would be detrimental as weight-bearing activities help improve bone density. Reducing dairy intake (choice C) is not recommended as dairy products are a good source of calcium. While increasing calcium intake (choice D) is important, ensuring sufficient vitamin D levels for proper absorption is equally crucial for bone health.
2. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Encourage oral fluids
- C. Monitor electrolytes
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is crucial in rapidly correcting dehydration and restoring fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids may not be sufficient in cases of severe dehydration where intravenous rehydration is needed. Monitoring electrolytes is important but administering fluids takes precedence in severe dehydration. Performing a neurological exam is not the primary intervention for severe dehydration.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
- B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- C. Heart rate of 94/min
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
- C. 1+ protein in the urine
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.
5. A patient is being cared for by a nurse who has a history of angina and is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with a history of angina experiencing chest pain, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. This helps in assessing for myocardial infarction, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important interventions but obtaining the ECG comes first to determine the presence of myocardial infarction and guide further management.
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