ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client at risk for osteoporosis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid weight-bearing exercises.
- B. I should increase my intake of vitamin D.
- C. I should reduce my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will increase my intake of foods high in calcium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should increase my intake of vitamin D.' Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for calcium absorption, which is essential for bone health and preventing osteoporosis. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (choice A) would be detrimental as weight-bearing activities help improve bone density. Reducing dairy intake (choice C) is not recommended as dairy products are a good source of calcium. While increasing calcium intake (choice D) is important, ensuring sufficient vitamin D levels for proper absorption is equally crucial for bone health.
2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen
- D. Start IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing intervention for a patient with an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing acute asthma symptoms. Administering corticosteroids (Choice B) is also important in the treatment plan, but it is not the priority intervention during an acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority initial intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice D) is not typically indicated as a priority intervention for an acute asthma attack.
3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Digoxin
- C. Aspirin
- D. Lisinopril
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage atrial fibrillation by controlling heart rate. While Warfarin is used to prevent blood clots, it is not primarily used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Aspirin is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation and is generally not recommended for rhythm control. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, but it is not typically prescribed as the primary medication for managing atrial fibrillation.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Redness at the insertion site.
- B. Swelling of the arm above the insertion site.
- C. A bruised area around the insertion site.
- D. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Swelling of the arm above the insertion site is concerning as it can indicate complications like thrombosis, which require immediate attention. Redness at the insertion site is common and expected in the initial stages. A bruised area around the insertion site may result from the insertion procedure and is usually not alarming unless it worsens or becomes larger. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within the normal range and is not directly related to PICC complications.
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