a client who experiences stress on a regular basis asks a nurse what causes these feelings which is the most appropriate nursing response
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client who experiences stress on a regular basis asks a nurse what causes these feelings. Which is the most appropriate nursing response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.' This response is appropriate because past experiences can shape an individual's current response to stress. It acknowledges the impact of learned patterns and coping mechanisms on one's current adaptation to stressors. Choice A is incorrect because genetics can play a role in temperament to some extent. Choice C is incorrect because while physical health can contribute to stress management, it is not the sole determinant of stress levels. Choice D is incorrect as stress is not always avoidable, but coping mechanisms can help manage and reduce its impact.

2. A client is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness due to the recent death of a beloved pet. The client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the client's behaviors?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should interpret the client's behaviors as not indicative of mental illness. The client is experiencing normal feelings of sadness following the loss of a pet, and the fact that the client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine remain unchanged suggests no functional impairment. It is essential to recognize that experiencing occasional feelings of sadness in response to a significant life event, such as the death of a pet, does not necessarily signify mental illness, especially when there is no significant impairment in daily functioning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they incorrectly suggest that the client's behaviors indicate mental illness, which is not the case in this context.

3. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

4. Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.

5. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, diaphoresis, and seizures are commonly observed. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia, an increased heart rate, is more commonly seen. Therefore, bradycardia is the correct answer as it is not an expected symptom during alcohol withdrawal. Tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis are all common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal, while bradycardia is not typically seen in this context.

Similar Questions

A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare professional expect?
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in the initial weeks of treatment?
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is being educated by a nurse about the use of antidepressants. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A healthcare professional is planning care for a client with borderline personality disorder. Which of the following interventions should not be included in the plan of care?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses