Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed diazepam (Valium) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) as it can potentiate the sedative effects and increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset, but avoiding alcohol is crucial to ensure safe and effective use of diazepam. Choice B is partially correct, as taking the medication with food can indeed help with stomach upset, but it is not as crucial as avoiding alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose is dangerous and should never be done without healthcare provider approval.

2. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
• B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
• C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
• D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

3. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
• B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
• C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
• D. The client maintains a stable weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.

4. During a manic episode, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
• B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
• C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
• D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals may experience heightened energy levels and reduced impulse control. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach helps reduce excessive stimulation and potential triggers for further escalation of manic behavior. It promotes a calming and controlled setting, assisting in managing symptoms and promoting the patient's well-being. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may lead to overstimulation, allowing the patient to engage in physical activities freely (Choice C) could be risky due to impulsivity, and giving detailed tasks (Choice D) might overwhelm the individual.

5. A patient presents in the Emergency Department immediately following a shooting incident in a school where she has been teaching. There is no evidence of physical injury, but she appears very hyperactive and talkative. Which of these symptoms manifested by the patient is an uncommon initial biological response to stress?

• A. Constricted pupils
• B. Watery eyes
• C. Palpitations
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased lacrimal secretions, palpitations, and increased heart rate are common initial biological responses to stress. Constricted pupils are not typical in the initial response to stress and are more associated with the opposite response, the Rest and Digest system. Watery eyes, palpitations, and increased heart rate are indicative of the body's fight or flight response to stress. Unusual food cravings are not a typical biological response to stress.

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