which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system an adult

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:

A. client who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.
B. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.
C. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.
D. client who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.

2. Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) often causes which of the following?

A. Colon cancer
B. Hiatal hernia
C. Peptic ulcer disease
D. Esophageal varices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium known to cause peptic ulcer disease by weakening the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum, leading to inflammation and ulcers. While chronic H. pylori infection is a risk factor for stomach cancer, it is not directly linked to colon cancer (Choice A), hiatal hernia (Choice B), or esophageal varices (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is C.

3. Which of the following best describes Cushing’s syndrome?

A. Hypersecretion of growth hormone
B. Excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands
C. Insufficient production of insulin
D. Increased levels of ACTH

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, not growth hormone (Choice A), insulin (Choice C), or ACTH (Choice D). The increased cortisol levels lead to a variety of symptoms associated with Cushing’s syndrome.

4. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

A. A normal leukocyte count
B. A high leukocyte count
C. A low leukocyte count
D. Another term for leukopenia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

5. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, such as Evista, works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This medication is beneficial in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by slowing down the breakdown of bone tissue, thereby reducing the risk of fractures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.