ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:
- A. client who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.
- B. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.
- C. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.
- D. client who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.
2. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?
- A. To increase bone density
- B. To reduce the risk of fractures
- C. To enhance sexual performance
- D. To restore testosterone levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.
3. A patient is taking alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water, and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to esophageal irritation when lying down. Taking the medication with milk (choice C) is incorrect as it may interfere with the absorption of alendronate. Taking the medication with food (choice D) is not recommended as it may reduce the effectiveness of the medication.
4. How does tamsulosin (Flomax) primarily benefit male patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
- A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
- B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
- C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
- D. Improvement in erectile function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamsulosin works by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, which helps improve urinary flow in patients with BPH. This relaxation reduces the symptoms associated with BPH, such as urinary hesitancy, urgency, and frequency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate gland. Choice C is incorrect as while tamsulosin does improve urine flow, its primary mechanism of action is through muscle relaxation rather than directly relieving obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function; its main therapeutic effect is targeted towards urinary symptoms related to BPH.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
- C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
- D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.
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