ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:
- A. client who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.
- B. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.
- C. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.
- D. client who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.
2. A 30-year-old female has suffered a third-degree burn to her hand after spilling hot oil in a kitchen accident. Which teaching point by a member of her care team is most appropriate?
- A. Your hand will likely heal without the need for a skin graft.
- B. You might experience a loss of sensation in your hand after it heals.
- C. Be sure to keep your hand elevated to reduce swelling.
- D. We will need to monitor you for infection as your hand heals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In third-degree burns, infection is a major concern due to the extensive damage to the skin. Monitoring for infection is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because third-degree burns often require skin grafts due to the severity of the injury. Choice B is incorrect as loss of sensation is more common in nerve damage and not necessarily in burns. Choice C is incorrect because while elevation can help with swelling in minor burns, it is not the most critical concern in third-degree burns.
3. A family member expresses concern to a nurse about behavioral changes in an elderly aunt. Which would cause the nurse to suspect a cognitive impairment disorder?
- A. Decreased interest in activities that she once enjoyed
- B. Fear of being alone at night
- C. Increased complaints of physical ailments
- D. Problems with preparing a meal or balancing her checkbook
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Problems with tasks like meal preparation and balancing a checkbook can indicate cognitive impairment, as these activities involve cognitive functions such as memory, attention, and executive function. Choices A, B, and C are less indicative of cognitive impairment. Decreased interest in activities and increased complaints of physical ailments may be related to other factors like depression, while fear of being alone at night could be due to anxiety or other psychological issues.
4. What is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma?
- A. Infection
- B. Allergic reaction
- C. Excessive exercise
- D. High altitude
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An allergic reaction is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients. When individuals with asthma come in contact with allergens like pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, it can lead to an allergic reaction that triggers bronchospasm. Infections, excessive exercise, and high altitudes can exacerbate asthma symptoms, but they are not the most common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients.
5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
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