ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:
- A. client who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.
- B. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.
- C. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.
- D. client who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer a vaccine to a newborn. Before administering the vaccine, the nurse should
- A. warm the vaccine to room temperature.
- B. gently cleanse the chosen injection site.
- C. check the infant's temperature.
- D. administer the full dose at a single injection site.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a vaccine to a newborn, it is essential for the nurse to check the infant's temperature. This is important to ensure that the newborn does not have a fever, which could indicate an underlying infection or illness. Warming the vaccine to room temperature is not necessary and could be harmful. Vigorously massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and tissue damage. Dividing the dose for administration to three injection sites is not standard practice for vaccine administration to a newborn.
3. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important information should the healthcare provider provide?
- A. This medication can cause sudden hearing loss.
- B. This medication should not be taken more than once a day.
- C. You should avoid taking this medication with high-fat meals.
- D. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sildenafil (Viagra) should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sudden hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect associated with sildenafil, not a common side effect. Choice B is not the most important information related to sildenafil use. While it is generally recommended not to exceed one dose per day, the interaction with nitrates is more critical. Choice C is also important to consider as high-fat meals can delay the onset of action of sildenafil, but it is not as crucial as avoiding nitrates.
4. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?
- A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
- B. Activation of opioid receptors
- C. Blocking of NMDA receptors
- D. Stimulation of serotonin receptors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.
5. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?
- A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
- B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. The patient's viral load
- D. The patient's CD4 count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.
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