staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain she has many comorbi

ATI RN

Final Exam Pathophysiology

1. Staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain. She has many comorbidities that require several prescription medications. The nurse knows that which factor is likely to complicate the clinician's assessment and treatment of the client's pain?

A. Her advanced age may influence the expression and perception of pain.
B. Her polypharmacy may complicate the pain management process.
C. Her underlying conditions may mask or exacerbate the pain.
D. Her cognitive function may decline, making pain assessment difficult.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polypharmacy, or the use of multiple medications, can complicate pain management due to drug interactions and side effects. While advanced age can influence pain perception, it is not the most likely factor to complicate assessment and treatment in this scenario. Underlying conditions may affect pain perception but do not directly complicate the management process. Cognitive decline can hinder pain assessment, but in this case, the focus is on factors directly impacting the treatment process, making option B the most appropriate choice.

2. What is the characteristic of the condition of leukemia?

A. A benign growth of skin cells
B. A malignant growth of skin cells
C. A malignant growth of white blood cells
D. A benign growth of white blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'A malignant growth of white blood cells.' Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, leading to an overproduction of abnormal white blood cells. These cells are malignant and impair the normal function of healthy blood cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leukemia does not involve skin cells or benign growths; instead, it specifically refers to the abnormal proliferation of white blood cells.

3. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?

A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

4. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?

A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.

5. In a patient with chronic kidney disease and a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL, which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

A. Iron supplementation
B. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents
C. Blood transfusion
D. Vitamin B12 supplementation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, anemia commonly occurs due to decreased erythropoietin production. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents, such as erythropoietin or darbepoetin, are the mainstay of treatment to stimulate red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is more appropriate for iron-deficiency anemia, not the anemia of chronic kidney disease. Blood transfusion is reserved for severe cases or acute blood loss. Vitamin B12 supplementation is indicated for megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, not specifically in chronic kidney disease-related anemia.