Nursing Elites

1. What property is found in clients with metastatic cancer?

• A. Tumors that are well encapsulated
• B. Tumors with slow, stable growth
• C. Cells that are genetically stable
• D. Cells invading local tissue and overrunning neighboring cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metastatic cancer is characterized by cells that invade local tissue and overrun neighboring cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metastatic cancer is associated with aggressive behavior where cells invade and spread to other parts of the body, rather than being well encapsulated, growing slowly, or being genetically stable.

2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

3. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

4. A 30-year-old male is being treated with testosterone enanthate for delayed puberty. What side effect should the nurse inform the patient about?

• A. Increased libido
• B. Decreased muscle mass
• C. Breast tenderness
• D. Increased aggression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should inform the patient about when receiving testosterone enanthate therapy for delayed puberty is increased aggression. Testosterone therapy can lead to mood changes, including increased aggression in some individuals. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients about this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because testosterone therapy is more likely to increase libido, promote muscle mass growth, and may cause breast tenderness due to hormonal imbalances.

5. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.

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