Nursing Elites

1. What property is found in clients with metastatic cancer?

• A. Tumors that are well encapsulated
• B. Tumors with slow, stable growth
• C. Cells that are genetically stable
• D. Cells invading local tissue and overrunning neighboring cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metastatic cancer is characterized by cells that invade local tissue and overrun neighboring cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metastatic cancer is associated with aggressive behavior where cells invade and spread to other parts of the body, rather than being well encapsulated, growing slowly, or being genetically stable.

2. Which of the following characteristics is common in both malignant and benign tumors?

• A. Uncontrolled cell growth
• B. Rapid growth
• C. Metastasis
• D. Invasion of surrounding tissue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uncontrolled cell growth. This characteristic is common to both malignant and benign tumors. Benign tumors are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rapid growth, metastasis, and invasion of surrounding tissue are characteristics typically associated with malignant tumors.

3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

4. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

5. Which physiologic response is most likely to accompany activation of the parasympathetic nervous system?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased gastric motility
• C. Pupil dilation
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased gastric motility. The parasympathetic nervous system is known to promote rest and digest functions, which includes increasing gastric motility to aid in digestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are more characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate (Choice A), pupil dilation (Choice C), and sweating (Choice D) among other responses.

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