ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL.
- B. I will take my insulin if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
- C. I will check my blood glucose level once a week.
- D. I will take my insulin only when I feel symptoms of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because consuming a snack when the blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL helps prevent hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. Choice B is incorrect because taking insulin when blood glucose is high (above 200 mg/dL) helps manage hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as checking blood glucose levels once a week is insufficient for proper diabetes management, which typically requires more frequent monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for symptoms of hyperglycemia to take insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.
2. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Critical pathways have unlimited timeframes for completion.
- B. Critical pathways are designed to decrease health care costs.
- C. Patients follow the critical pathway if variances occur.
- D. Budgets are used to create the critical pathway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.
3. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid deep breathing exercises
- B. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer
- C. Assist the client with ambulation every 2 hours
- D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.
4. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Bananas
- B. Carrots
- C. Bacon
- D. Chicken breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bacon is high in sodium, which can elevate blood pressure levels. Clients with hypertension should avoid high-sodium foods like bacon to help manage their blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are healthier options compared to bacon and can be included in a balanced diet for someone with hypertension. Bananas are a good source of potassium, which can help in managing blood pressure. Carrots are low in sodium and high in fiber, making them a heart-healthy choice. Chicken breast is a lean protein option that is beneficial for individuals with hypertension.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.
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