a nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following birth which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, a heart rate of 160/min. A heart rate of 160/min in a newborn exceeds the normal range and could indicate potential issues that need further evaluation by the provider. Acrocyanosis (choice A) is a common finding in newborns and is not concerning. Vernix caseosa (choice B) is a white, cheesy substance found on newborn skin and is a normal finding. While a respiratory rate of 50/min (choice C) is slightly elevated, it is not as concerning as a high heart rate in a newborn.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is found in foods like rye and barley. Choice A is incorrect because oatmeal may contain gluten unless specified gluten-free. Choice C is incorrect as rye contains gluten. Choice D is incorrect as barley contains gluten.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.

5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A, avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight, is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice B, taking the medication with a meal, is not a specific requirement for furosemide administration. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not the correct advice as furosemide is a diuretic that often requires increased fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

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