Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.

3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer anticoagulants
• C. Prepare for surgery
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

4. A nurse is planning to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following should the nurse do to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction?

• A. Verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription
• B. Ensure the client's consent for the transfusion is on file
• C. Administer a diuretic prior to starting the transfusion
• D. Check the client's temperature prior to the transfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription. This is crucial to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction due to incompatibility. Ensuring the blood type matches before starting the transfusion is a standard safety practice. Option B, ensuring client consent, is important but not directly related to preventing a transfusion reaction. Option C, administering a diuretic, is unnecessary and can be harmful in this context. Option D, checking the client's temperature, is important for general assessment but not specifically focused on preventing a transfusion reaction.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Heart rate of 60/min
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart rate of 60/min. A heart rate of 60/min is borderline bradycardia, which can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so any further decrease in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are within the normal range and not specifically related to potential digoxin toxicity, so they do not require immediate reporting.

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