Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a nasogastric tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
• B. Check for gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position during feedings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and subsequent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Flushing the tube with water before feedings (Choice A) is not necessary for preventing aspiration. Checking for gastric residuals (Choice B) helps monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration. Placing the client in the left lateral position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for preventing aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?

• A. INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin A1C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Cheddar cheese
• C. Almonds
• D. Fortified orange juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.

5. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

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