Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Take this medication with food.
• C. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.' This instruction is crucial when taking alendronate as it reduces the risk of esophagitis by preventing the medication from irritating the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime, to enhance absorption. Choice B is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, with a full glass of water. Choice D is incorrect as there are no specific restrictions on taking alendronate with calcium-rich foods.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and is experiencing fluid volume overload. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing fluid volume overload, the nurse should expect a decreased blood pressure. Fluid volume overload can lead to poor cardiac output, which in turn can cause a decrease in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not expected in fluid volume overload; decreased heart rate is not typically associated with fluid volume overload; and an increased heart rate is more commonly seen in response to fluid overload to compensate for the decreased cardiac output.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Clay-colored stools.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Stridor.
• D. Elevated temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clay-colored stools are a classic finding in a client with cirrhosis. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired bile flow, resulting in pale or clay-colored stools due to a lack of bilirubin in the stool. Hypertension, stridor, and elevated temperature are not typically associated with cirrhosis. Hypertension may occur in cirrhosis but is not a consistent finding, stridor is more commonly associated with upper airway obstruction, and elevated temperature may indicate an infection rather than a direct result of cirrhosis.

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