Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Use of pursed-lip breathing
• C. Productive cough with green sputum
• D. Decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.

3. If a nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

• A. Time the medication was given
• B. The client's response to the medication
• C. The dose that was administered
• D. Reason for the error

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the time the medication was given. This is essential for understanding the sequence of events surrounding the medication error. While documenting the client's response to the medication (Choice B) is important for assessing any effects, the immediate concern should be to establish a clear timeline by documenting the time of administration. Recording the dose administered (Choice C) is also important, but in the context of understanding the incident, the time factor takes precedence. The reason for the error (Choice D) should be included in the incident report but may not be the first priority when documenting in the client's medical record.

4. A client with cancer is about to receive low-dose brachytherapy via a vaginal implant. What intervention should be included in the care plan?

• A. Remove vaginal packing.
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• C. Ambulate the client four times daily.
• D. Keep the client NPO until therapy is complete.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention that should be included in the care plan for a client about to receive low-dose brachytherapy via a vaginal implant is to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. This is crucial to prevent bladder distention during brachytherapy, ensuring the treatment's effectiveness and the client's comfort. Removing vaginal packing (Choice A) may not be necessary or appropriate in this situation. Ambulating the client four times daily (Choice C) is a good nursing intervention for general patient care but is not specifically related to brachytherapy via a vaginal implant. Keeping the client NPO until therapy is complete (Choice D) is not necessary unless specifically indicated due to the treatment's nature or the client's condition.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

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