a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube which of the following actions should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor. Dehydration reduces amniotic fluid and uterine blood flow, potentially leading to preterm contractions. Choice A is incorrect because dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with adequate fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by insufficient fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.

3. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying a fetal heart rate monitor is the priority action in this scenario as it helps assess the well-being of the fetus during labor. This monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress and guide interventions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not a priority at this time unless there are specific indications. Initiating fundal massage (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on fetal assessment. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion (Choice D) is not indicated until the stage of labor and the progress of labor are determined.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, International normalized ratio (INR). INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the INR helps assess how well the medication is working to prevent blood clots. Choices A, B, and C are not specific indicators for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count evaluates the clotting ability of blood, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. While these values are important for overall health assessment, they do not directly reflect the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

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