a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube which of the following actions should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A productive cough with green sputum can indicate a bacterial infection, which is a concern for clients with COPD. Reporting this finding to the provider is important for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning in the context of COPD management. An oxygen saturation of 92% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients, pursed-lip breathing is a helpful technique for managing breathing difficulties in COPD, and an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter is a common finding in clients with COPD due to chronic air trapping.

4. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for as a potential adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased heart rate is a common adverse effect of levothyroxine due to its role in boosting metabolism. Choice B, weight loss, is actually a therapeutic effect of levothyroxine as it helps in managing hypothyroidism by increasing the metabolic rate. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes (Choice D) are not associated with levothyroxine use.

5. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.

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