Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Raised nevus
• B. Macule
• C. Vesicle
• D. Irregularly shaped mole

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

2. A client has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Massage the injection site after administering the medication.
• B. Pinch the skin while administering the injection.
• C. Administer the medication at bedtime.
• D. Aspirate before injecting the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enoxaparin, it is important to pinch the skin to ensure proper subcutaneous injection. Massaging the injection site after administering the medication is not recommended. Administering the medication at bedtime is not a specific requirement for enoxaparin. Aspirating before injecting the medication is not necessary for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in a patient receiving digoxin?

• A. Monitor potassium levels
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Potassium levels should be monitored closely in a patient receiving digoxin to avoid hypokalemia. Digoxin can increase the risk of developing life-threatening arrhythmias in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring sodium, calcium, or glucose levels is not specifically necessary for patients on digoxin, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a nasogastric tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
• B. Check for gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position during feedings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and subsequent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Flushing the tube with water before feedings (Choice A) is not necessary for preventing aspiration. Checking for gastric residuals (Choice B) helps monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration. Placing the client in the left lateral position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for preventing aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube.

5. While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• B. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.

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