ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Raised nevus
- B. Macule
- C. Vesicle
- D. Irregularly shaped mole
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which dietary recommendation should be included?
- A. Consume food high in bran fiber.
- B. Increase intake of milk products.
- C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
- D. Increase foods high in gluten.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps reduce IBS symptoms by promoting regular bowel movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products can exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high FODMAP content, and increasing foods high in gluten could be problematic for individuals with gluten sensitivities or celiac disease, which are common in some with IBS.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's admission laboratory results. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
- A. Sodium 138
- B. Creatinine 1.8
- C. Hemoglobin 15
- D. Potassium 4.2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated creatinine level, such as 1.8, suggests potential kidney dysfunction, requiring further assessment. Sodium level within normal limits (135-145 mEq/L), hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL, and potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L are all within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns. Therefore, they do not require further evaluation at this time.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Platelet count
- C. INR
- D. WBC count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following resources should the nurse provide?
- A. Personal blogs about managing diabetes medications.
- B. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
- C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
- D. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Food exchange lists are valuable resources for individuals with diabetes as they provide structured meal planning guidance. This helps individuals manage their diabetes effectively by controlling their carbohydrate intake. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because personal blogs may not provide reliable and evidence-based information, food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine may not be specific for diabetes meal planning, and diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference is not directly related to meal planning for diabetes management.
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