Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Raised nevus
• B. Macule
• C. Vesicle
• D. Irregularly shaped mole

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect to be elevated?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Amylase
• D. Creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. Amylase levels are elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) is not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Bilirubin (choice B) may be elevated in conditions affecting the liver, not specifically in acute pancreatitis. Creatinine (choice D) is a marker of kidney function and is not directly related to acute pancreatitis.

4. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?

• A. A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
• B. A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
• C. A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
• D. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check for residual feeding contents.
• B. Administer the feeding through a large-bore syringe.
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding.
• D. Administer the feeding at room temperature.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube is to flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevent clogging. Choice A, checking for residual feeding contents, is not the immediate action to take before administering the feeding. Choice B, administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe, is not the recommended method for administering enteral feedings. Choice D, administering the feeding at room temperature, is important but not the immediate action related to tube maintenance.

Similar Questions