ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons?
- A. Respect the patient's beliefs
- B. Educate the patient on the importance of the transfusion
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Persuade the patient to accept the transfusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons, the healthcare provider should respect the patient's beliefs. It is crucial to uphold the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care, even if the provider disagrees. Educating the patient on the importance of the transfusion may be appropriate in some cases, but the initial response should always be to respect the patient's decision. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary as the decision lies with the patient. Persuading the patient to accept the transfusion goes against the principle of respecting the patient's autonomy and beliefs.
2. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place the client in a supine position
- B. Administer morphine for pain relief
- C. Apply a warm compress to the incision site
- D. Place a pillow under the client's knees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering morphine for pain relief is crucial for postoperative clients following a cholecystectomy to manage pain effectively. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can cause discomfort and hinder breathing. Applying a warm compress to the incision site can increase the risk of infection. Placing a pillow under the client's knees is not a priority intervention compared to pain management.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
- B. Turn the client every 4 hours
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased muscle strength.
- C. Diarrhea.
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.
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