Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

2. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Hemoptysis
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased urine output.' Embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve can cause renal infarction, leading to a decrease in urine output. This complication is due to the obstruction of blood flow to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because embolization from the mitral valve typically does not directly cause pulmonary embolism, hemoptysis, or deep vein thrombosis.

3. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

• A. “I will brush my teeth with a soft-bristle toothbrush.”
• B. “I will rinse my mouth with Listerine mouthwash.”
• C. “I will swish my antifungal solution and then swallow.”
• D. “I will avoid spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate and worsen the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using a soft-bristle toothbrush may still cause discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can be irritating. Choice C is incorrect as swallowing antifungal solution meant for topical use is not appropriate and can be harmful.

4. Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in the client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Pheochromocytoma
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hashimoto's disease
• D. Gynecomastia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (Choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland that causes excessive release of catecholamines, leading to hypertension. Hashimoto's disease (Choice C) is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid gland. Gynecomastia (Choice D) refers to the enlargement of breast tissue in males and is not directly related to a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure.

5. When does short-bowel syndrome usually occur?

• A. The longitudinal muscles of the intestine contract
• B. More than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed
• C. More than 50% of the large intestine is surgically removed
• D. Transit time is decreased due to infection or drugs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome typically occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition leads to malabsorption issues due to the reduced length of the intestine for absorption. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because short-bowel syndrome specifically relates to the insufficient length of the small intestine, not the contraction of longitudinal muscles, surgical removal of the large intestine, or decreased transit time due to infection or drugs.

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