which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

2. When does short-bowel syndrome usually occur?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome typically occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition leads to malabsorption issues due to the reduced length of the intestine for absorption. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because short-bowel syndrome specifically relates to the insufficient length of the small intestine, not the contraction of longitudinal muscles, surgical removal of the large intestine, or decreased transit time due to infection or drugs.

3. Identifying the strengths and weaknesses in the nursing care plan is part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the patient's nursing care needs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the nursing care plan by identifying its strengths and weaknesses. This step helps in determining if the plan is meeting the patient's needs. Choice B (Planning) is incorrect because planning involves developing the nursing care plan based on the assessment of the patient's needs. Choice C (Implementation) is incorrect as it refers to putting the nursing care plan into action. Choice D (Assessment) is incorrect as assessment is the initial step in the nursing process, involving data collection and analysis to identify the patient's needs.

4. The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best direction provided by the nurse. This method involves reaching over to the left side rail with the right hand, pulling the body onto its side, bending the upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and pushing down to elevate the trunk. This approach helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, reducing strain on the back. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that are not suitable for a client recovering from a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion and could potentially cause harm or discomfort.

5. What is the correct amount of specimen to collect when collecting a stool specimen for testing purposes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When collecting a stool specimen, the nurse should usually take about 1 inch of the specimen or a teaspoonful for testing purposes. This amount is sufficient for laboratory analysis and helps ensure accurate results. It is important for the nurse to follow the proper procedure for specimen collection to maintain accuracy in diagnostic testing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the correct information on the amount of specimen needed for stool specimen collection.

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