Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

2. What is the term for the infection of small sacs that protrude from the lumen of the colon?

• A. Diverticulosis
• B. Diverticulitis
• C. Cholelithiasis
• D. Cholecystitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diverticulitis. Diverticulitis specifically refers to the infection or inflammation of diverticula in the colon. Choice A, Diverticulosis, is incorrect as it refers to the condition of having diverticula without inflammation or infection. Choices C and D, Cholelithiasis and Cholecystitis, are unrelated conditions affecting the gallbladder, not the colon.

3. The client with chronic alcoholism has chronic pancreatitis and hypomagnesemia. What should the nurse assess when administering magnesium sulfate to the client?

• A. Deep tendon reflexes
• B. Arterial blood gases
• C. Skin turgor
• D. Capillary refill time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with chronic alcoholism, chronic pancreatitis, and hypomagnesemia, the nurse should assess deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system and decrease deep tendon reflexes, so monitoring them is crucial. Assessing arterial blood gases, skin turgor, or capillary refill time is not directly related to the administration of magnesium sulfate in this scenario.

4. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position herself?

• A. At the client's back
• B. At the client's right side
• C. At the client's left side
• D. In front of a sitting client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position herself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Placing oneself in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as positioning at the back or sides of the client may hinder proper assessment due to limited visibility and access to the neck area.

5. What is the most crucial and most difficult management skill required of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Preparing time schedules and task assignment rosters
• B. Inspecting equipment for damage and proper function
• C. Preparing reports and maintaining records
• D. Effectively managing personnel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Effectively managing personnel. In a healthcare setting, managing personnel is crucial as it involves leading, motivating, and coordinating the healthcare team to ensure quality patient care. While tasks like preparing schedules, inspecting equipment, and maintaining records are important, managing personnel involves dealing with human factors, conflicts, and emotions, making it the most challenging skill for a practical nurse.

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