Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

2. Which lipoprotein carries cholesterol from tissues to the liver for excretion?

• A. Very low-density lipoprotein
• B. Intermediate-density lipoprotein
• C. Low-density lipoprotein
• D. High-density lipoprotein

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, High-density lipoprotein (HDL). HDL is known as 'good' cholesterol because it helps transport excess cholesterol from tissues back to the liver for removal from the body. Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) (choice A) and intermediate-density lipoprotein (choice B) are involved in transporting triglycerides. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) (choice C) is known as 'bad' cholesterol as it can deposit cholesterol in the walls of arteries.

3. Are M6 practical nurses utilized in field units with patient holding capabilities?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. -
• D. -

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, M6 practical nurses are utilized in field units with patient holding capabilities. They play a crucial role in providing care and support in these settings. Choice B is incorrect as M6 practical nurses are indeed utilized in such field units, as stated in the extract. Choices C and D are not applicable as the correct answer is 'Yes.'

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
• B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) of 7.0%
• C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
• D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Choice A, chronic kidney disease with a serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL, though concerning, does not indicate an immediate need for follow-up. Choice C, heart failure with a BNP of 140 pg/mL, may require monitoring but not immediate follow-up. Choice D, a male client with anemia and normal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, does not warrant immediate attention based on the provided information.

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