Nursing Elites

1. What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?

• A. Ensure that each soldier receives a physical examination annually
• B. Deliver healthcare to regions of the U.S. designated as disaster areas by the President
• C. Maintain the health of the Army and preserve its combat effectiveness
• D. Offer medical, dental, and veterinary education and training

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and preserve its combat effectiveness.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure that military personnel remain healthy and fit for duty to preserve the Army's fighting strength. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department, which is focused on the health and readiness of the military forces, rather than performing annual physical examinations, responding to disasters, or providing education and training.

2. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

• A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
• B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
• C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
• D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.

3. In supply and equipment management, what is the FIRST step in the procurement process?

• A. Keep hand receipts up to date
• B. Establish requirements
• C. Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels
• D. Properly receive, inspect, and store required items

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Establish requirements. In the procurement process, the initial step involves determining and establishing the requirements for the supplies and equipment needed. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire procurement process by outlining the specific needs and specifications. Choice A, 'Keep hand receipts up to date,' is not the first step but rather a later administrative task. Choice C, 'Requisition supplies and equipment through the proper channels,' comes after establishing requirements. Choice D, 'Properly receive, inspect, and store required items,' is the final step in the procurement process, focusing on the physical receipt and handling of the procured items.

4. Which drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

• A. Antacids
• B. Certain antibiotics
• C. Cholesterol-lowering medications
• D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are known to contribute to the development of peptic ulcers by affecting the protective lining of the stomach and increasing stomach acid production. This can lead to irritation and ulcer formation. Antacids are actually used to relieve symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Certain antibiotics may be prescribed to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Cholesterol-lowering medications are not typically associated with causing peptic ulcers.

5. The client diagnosed with thalassemia, a hereditary anemia, is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. The cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. Which precaution should the nurse implement when initiating the transfusion?

• A. Start the transfusion at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes
• B. Re-crossmatch the blood until the antibodies are identified
• C. Have the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood
• D. Have the unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Starting the transfusion slowly at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes is essential when the cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. This precaution allows the nurse to monitor for any adverse reactions due to the antibodies. Re-crossmatching the blood until the antibodies are identified (choice B) may delay the transfusion process and put the client at risk. Having the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood (choice C) is not a standard practice and does not address the immediate need for precautions during transfusion. Having the unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client (choice D) is unrelated to the safe initiation of the transfusion and is not a precaution specific to managing antibodies in blood products.

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