the nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor which client should the nurse assess first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is less urgent as occasional unifocal PVCs are common. Choice B is important but can be addressed after the client with an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable compared to a client with potential heart failure symptoms.

2. What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and preserve its combat effectiveness.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure that military personnel remain healthy and fit for duty to preserve the Army's fighting strength. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department, which is focused on the health and readiness of the military forces, rather than performing annual physical examinations, responding to disasters, or providing education and training.

3. Performing and supervising therapeutic and preventive procedures that have been planned for a patient is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In nursing care, implementation involves carrying out and supervising the planned procedures for the patient. This step focuses on putting the care plan into action. Choice A, Evaluation, involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, not performing procedures. Choice B, Planning, is about developing a plan of care, not executing it. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step in the nursing process where data is collected and analyzed to determine the patient's needs, not the step involving performing and supervising procedures.

4. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.

5. When does short-bowel syndrome usually occur?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome typically occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition leads to malabsorption issues due to the reduced length of the intestine for absorption. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because short-bowel syndrome specifically relates to the insufficient length of the small intestine, not the contraction of longitudinal muscles, surgical removal of the large intestine, or decreased transit time due to infection or drugs.

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