Nursing Elites

1. A client who _____ diet requires _____ amounts of vitamin C.

• A. Follows a vegan diet
• B. Smokes cigarettes
• C. Follows a vegetarian diet
• D. Follows a ketogenic diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients who smoke require more vitamin C due to increased oxidative stress and depletion of vitamin C. Smoking leads to the generation of free radicals in the body, causing oxidative stress and consuming higher levels of antioxidants like vitamin C. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the increased need for vitamin C as seen in smokers.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

3. What is the most crucial and most difficult management skill required of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Preparing time schedules and task assignment rosters
• B. Inspecting equipment for damage and proper function
• C. Preparing reports and maintaining records
• D. Effectively managing personnel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Effectively managing personnel is indeed the most crucial and difficult management skill required of a practical nurse. This skill involves supervising, motivating, and coordinating the work of other healthcare staff, ensuring optimal patient care. Choices A, B, and C are important tasks but do not necessarily involve the same level of complexity and interpersonal skills required for managing personnel in a healthcare setting.

4. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in a minute
• B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate
• C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3
• D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure and requires immediate assessment. Choice A is not as urgent as an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse. Choice B, a client with coronary artery disease wanting to ambulate, does not present an immediate concern compared to a potential heart failure indicated by an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable and does not require immediate attention when compared to a potential heart failure situation signified by an audible S3 in mitral valve prolapse.

5. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?

• A. The pancreas
• B. The adrenal cortex
• C. The adrenal medulla
• D. The anterior pituitary gland

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Norepinephrine is indeed secreted by the adrenal medulla, making choice C the correct answer. The adrenal medulla is part of the adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys. Norepinephrine is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response, helping to prepare the body to react to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as norepinephrine is not secreted by the pancreas, adrenal cortex, or the anterior pituitary gland.

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