Nursing Elites

1. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

2. A patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse will provide a consent form to sign for which test?

• A. Bone marrow biopsy
• B. Abdominal ultrasound
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin, a bone marrow biopsy is usually indicated to determine the cause. A bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires the patient or guardian to sign a surgical consent form. Abdominal ultrasound (Choice B) is not typically used to diagnose pancytopenia. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice C) is a routine blood test and does not require a specific consent form. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (Choice D) is a coagulation test and not typically performed to diagnose pancytopenia.

3. Which task for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection
• B. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions
• C. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection
• D. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because administering subcutaneous medications falls within the education and scope of practice of an LPN/LVN. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, teaching the patient, and developing a discharge plan are tasks that require an RN level of education and scope of practice. LPN/LVNs can assist in patient care, but tasks that involve assessment, teaching, and care planning are typically the responsibility of an RN.

4. A patient is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Check frequently for swollen lymph nodes.
• B. Watch for excessive bleeding or bruising.
• C. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia.
• D. Wash hands and avoid individuals who are ill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Washing hands and avoiding contact with individuals who are ill are crucial to reduce this risk. Choice A is incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes is not a priority after a splenectomy. Choice B is incorrect as while bleeding is a concern, it is more immediate post-operatively. Choice C is incorrect as iron supplements do not specifically relate to the risk of infection post-splenectomy.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
• B. Increasing preload.
• C. Decreasing cardiac output.
• D. Decreasing afterload.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.

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