ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?
- A. Potential complication: seizures
- B. Potential complication: infection
- C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
- D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.
2. Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis?
- A. Take a daily multivitamin with iron
- B. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day
- C. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible
- D. Drink only two caffeinated beverages daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid exposure to crowds when possible.' This instruction is crucial in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis because exposure to crowds increases the risk of infection, which is the most common cause of sickle cell crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking a daily multivitamin with iron (Choice A) may be beneficial for some individuals but is not specifically related to managing sickle cell crisis. Limiting fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day (Choice B) is not typically recommended for patients with sickle cell crisis, as adequate hydration is important. Drinking only two caffeinated beverages daily (Choice D) is not a priority instruction in managing sickle cell crisis.
3. A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding?
- A. Have you had any recent weight loss?
- B. Do you have any history of lung disease?
- C. Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools?
- D. What is your dietary intake of meats and proteins?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Do you have any history of lung disease?" The elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels suggest polycythemia, which can be seen in conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Option A is less relevant as weight loss is not typically associated with these blood count findings. Option C is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than a respiratory issue. Option D focuses on dietary factors, which are less likely to cause such significant elevations in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as seen in this case.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Check frequently for swollen lymph nodes.
- B. Watch for excessive bleeding or bruising.
- C. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia.
- D. Wash hands regularly and avoid individuals who are ill.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Wash hands regularly and avoid individuals who are ill.' After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Proper hand hygiene and avoiding contact with sick individuals are crucial to prevent infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes, watching for excessive bleeding or bruising, and taking iron supplements are not specifically related to the increased infection risk post-splenectomy.
5. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?
- A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
- B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access