Nursing Elites

1. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

2. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?

• A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
• B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
• C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
• D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.

3. A patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse will provide a consent form to sign for which test?

• A. Bone marrow biopsy
• B. Abdominal ultrasound
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin, a bone marrow biopsy is usually indicated to determine the cause. A bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires the patient or guardian to sign a surgical consent form. Abdominal ultrasound (Choice B) is not typically used to diagnose pancytopenia. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice C) is a routine blood test and does not require a specific consent form. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (Choice D) is a coagulation test and not typically performed to diagnose pancytopenia.

4. The health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure?

• A. Check for any iodine allergy.
• B. Insert a large-bore IV catheter.
• C. Administer prescribed sedatives.
• D. Assist the patient to a flat position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a liver and spleen scan, it is essential to assist the patient to a flat position. This position helps obtain clear images of the liver and spleen. Checking for iodine allergy (Choice A) is more relevant for procedures involving contrast dye, not a liver and spleen scan. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter (Choice B) may not be necessary for this specific procedure. Administering sedatives (Choice C) is not typically required for a liver and spleen scan, as the patient needs to remain still during the procedure.

5. The nurse is educating a patient who was discharged from the hospital after having cardiac surgery one week ago. The nurse recognizes the patient understands medication management when he/she states:

• A. I need to take my Lisinopril daily to reduce my risk of heart failure
• B. I only need to take the metoprolol when I feel my heart skip a beat
• C. I should carry my nitroglycerin pills in my pocket at all times
• D. I should only take the pain pills when my pain is really bad

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is commonly prescribed post-cardiac surgery to manage blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart failure. It is important for the patient to take Lisinopril daily as prescribed to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as metoprolol is usually prescribed on a regular schedule to manage heart conditions, not just when symptoms occur. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be kept in a cool, dry place, not in a pocket where it could be exposed to heat or moisture. Choice D is incorrect as pain medication should be taken as prescribed for adequate pain control, not just when pain is severe.

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