Nursing Elites

1. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

2. A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?

• A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
• B. Petechiae are present on the chest
• C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
• D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this case, with a platelet count of 42,000/µL, the count is not critically low, and the patient is not actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the transfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and do not necessarily require immediate consultation before administering a platelet transfusion.

3. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

4. Which task for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

• A. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection
• B. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions
• C. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection
• D. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because administering subcutaneous medications falls within the education and scope of practice of an LPN/LVN. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, teaching the patient, and developing a discharge plan are tasks that require an RN level of education and scope of practice. LPN/LVNs can assist in patient care, but tasks that involve assessment, teaching, and care planning are typically the responsibility of an RN.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient post coronary artery bypass graft who rates his/her pain as an 8 out of 10 on the subjective pain scale. Should the nurse choose to administer morphine sulfate intravenously as it has benefits to cardiac patients (select one that does not apply)?

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply
• B. Decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption
• C. Decreasing heart rate
• D. Increasing blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine sulfate, a potent opioid analgesic, can cause vasodilation leading to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase. Choice A is incorrect as morphine can decrease myocardial oxygen consumption by reducing the workload of the heart. Choice B is incorrect as morphine can decrease heart rate as a side effect. Choice C is incorrect as morphine typically decreases blood pressure rather than increasing it.

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