Nursing Elites

1. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

2. A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?

• A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
• B. Petechiae are present on the chest
• C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
• D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this case, with a platelet count of 42,000/µL, the count is not critically low, and the patient is not actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the transfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and do not necessarily require immediate consultation before administering a platelet transfusion.

3. Which information shown in the table below about a patient who has just arrived in the emergency department is most urgent for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Platelet count
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. The platelet count is severely decreased, indicating a risk for spontaneous bleeding, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. While heart rate, abdominal pain, and white blood cell count are important, a severely decreased platelet count poses a more imminent threat to the patient's health and requires urgent communication to the healthcare provider. The nurse should prioritize addressing this potentially life-threatening issue to ensure prompt intervention and management.

4. When providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis, what is important for the nurse to do?

• A. Monitor the patient's intake of oral and IV fluids
• B. Evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics
• C. Encourage the patient to ambulate as much as tolerated
• D. Educate the patient about high-protein, high-calorie foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics. In sickle cell crisis, pain is the most common symptom and is usually managed with large doses of continuous opioids. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice A) is important, but limiting fluids may not be necessary. Encouraging ambulation (Choice C) is generally good but may not be the priority during a sickle cell crisis. Educating the patient about nutrition (Choice D) is important for overall health but may not be the immediate focus during a crisis.

5. During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
• B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
• C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
• D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.

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