Nursing Elites

1. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

2. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Heparin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

3. Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse’s teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling.
• B. There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling.
• C. Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis.
• D. Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient in the cardiac unit recovering from a cardiac bypass graft procedure. The patient's spouse comes out to the hallway and expresses concern about the patient's confusion since surgery was 3 days ago. An appropriate response by the nurse would be:

• A. Let me call the doctor right away.
• B. What specific concerns do you have?
• C. It is common for confusion to occur after this procedure.
• D. I'll have the counselor come meet you in the room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because confusion can be a common occurrence after cardiac surgeries due to factors such as anesthesia, medication, and the stress of the procedure. By acknowledging the spouse's concern and explaining that confusion is a known potential outcome, the nurse provides reassurance and education. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the spouse's concern about the patient's confusion or provide appropriate information about the situation.

5. A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:

• A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
• B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
• C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
• D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.

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