Nursing Elites

1. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

2. When providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis, what is important for the nurse to do?

• A. Monitor the patient's intake of oral and IV fluids
• B. Evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics
• C. Encourage the patient to ambulate as much as tolerated
• D. Educate the patient about high-protein, high-calorie foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics. In sickle cell crisis, pain is the most common symptom and is usually managed with large doses of continuous opioids. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice A) is important, but limiting fluids may not be necessary. Encouraging ambulation (Choice C) is generally good but may not be the priority during a sickle cell crisis. Educating the patient about nutrition (Choice D) is important for overall health but may not be the immediate focus during a crisis.

3. A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia
• B. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections
• C. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves
• D. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils. Teaching the patient to self-administer these injections can help increase the neutrophil count and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is incorrect as hospital admission may not be necessary if the patient can manage the condition at home. Option C is not ideal as discontinuing chemotherapy can impact the leukemia treatment. Option D is unrelated to managing neutropenia in this scenario.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient in the cardiac unit recovering from a cardiac bypass graft procedure. The patient's spouse comes out to the hallway and expresses concern about the patient's confusion since surgery was 3 days ago. An appropriate response by the nurse would be:

• A. Let me call the doctor right away.
• B. What specific concerns do you have?
• C. It is common for confusion to occur after this procedure.
• D. I'll have the counselor come meet you in the room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because confusion can be a common occurrence after cardiac surgeries due to factors such as anesthesia, medication, and the stress of the procedure. By acknowledging the spouse's concern and explaining that confusion is a known potential outcome, the nurse provides reassurance and education. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the spouse's concern about the patient's confusion or provide appropriate information about the situation.

5. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

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