Nursing Elites

1. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

2. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?

• A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
• B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
• C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
• D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.

3. Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a patient who has neutropenia?

• A. Avoid intramuscular injections
• B. Check temperature every 4 hours
• C. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet
• D. Place a 'No Visitors' sign on the door

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check temperature every 4 hours.' Neutropenic patients have a weakened immune system due to low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell that helps fight infections. Monitoring the patient's temperature every 4 hours is crucial because the earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is often a fever. This allows for early detection of any potential infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding intramuscular injections, omitting fruits or vegetables from the diet, and placing a 'No Visitors' sign on the door are not specific actions directly related to managing neutropenia or monitoring for signs of infection.

4. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Heparin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.

5. A patient is considering options to manage his/her coronary artery disease. The nurse explains a coronary artery bypass graft procedure will:

• A. Cure the patient's coronary artery disease.
• B. Replace the leaking valve in the heart.
• C. Connect grafts to aorta to improve blood flow.
• D. Place a permanent pacemaker on the heart muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A coronary artery bypass graft procedure involves connecting grafts to the aorta to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. This procedure does not cure coronary artery disease but helps improve blood supply to the heart. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bypass graft procedure does not cure the underlying disease, replace heart valves, or involve the placement of a pacemaker.

Similar Questions