ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis?
- A. Take a daily multivitamin with iron
- B. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day
- C. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible
- D. Drink only two caffeinated beverages daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid exposure to crowds when possible.' This instruction is crucial in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis because exposure to crowds increases the risk of infection, which is the most common cause of sickle cell crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking a daily multivitamin with iron (Choice A) may be beneficial for some individuals but is not specifically related to managing sickle cell crisis. Limiting fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day (Choice B) is not typically recommended for patients with sickle cell crisis, as adequate hydration is important. Drinking only two caffeinated beverages daily (Choice D) is not a priority instruction in managing sickle cell crisis.
2. The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the
- A. Schilling test
- B. bilirubin level
- C. gastric analysis
- D. stool occult blood
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: bilirubin level. Jaundice, characterized by scleral jaundice, is caused by the elevation of bilirubin levels associated with red blood cell hemolysis. Checking the bilirubin level in the laboratory results will help assess the severity of jaundice in the patient. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Schilling test is used to assess vitamin B12 absorption, gastric analysis is used to evaluate gastric function, and stool occult blood is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which are not directly related to evaluating jaundice in a patient with hemolytic anemia.
3. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
- A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
- D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
4. The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Avoid intramuscular injections.
- B. Encourage increased oral fluids.
- C. Check temperature every 4 hours.
- D. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan of care for a thrombocytopenic patient is to avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a decreased number of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. Intramuscular injections can pose a risk of bleeding in patients with low platelet counts. Encouraging increased oral fluids (choice B) is beneficial for hydration but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia. Checking temperature every 4 hours (choice C) is important for monitoring infection but does not specifically address the risk of bleeding. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods (choice D) is more related to addressing anemia, not the primary concern of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.
5. Which menu choice indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching about recommended dietary choices for iron-deficiency anemia?
- A. Omelet and whole wheat toast
- B. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese
- C. Strawberry and banana fruit plate
- D. Cornmeal muffin and orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Cornmeal muffin and orange juice." Cornmeal muffin is a good source of iron, which is beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Orange juice is high in vitamin C, which aids in iron absorption. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically address the need for iron-rich foods, making them less suitable for someone with iron-deficiency anemia. Omelet and whole wheat toast (Choice A) may provide some iron but are not as focused on addressing the specific deficiency. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese (Choice B) and strawberry and banana fruit plate (Choice C) are more general fruit choices and do not emphasize iron-rich options.
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