Nursing Elites

1. Which clean-catch urinalysis finding should raise the most concern for a child admitted to an urgent care center to rule out a urinary tract infection?

• A. 2+ white blood cells
• B. 1+ red blood cells
• C. Urine appearance: cloudy
• D. Specific gravity: 1.009

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A specific gravity of 1.009 is low, indicating diluted urine, which can be concerning in the context of a urinary tract infection. Diluted urine may suggest inadequate concentration due to increased fluid intake or impaired kidney function, which are important considerations in the assessment of a possible UTI.

2. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when assessing a child admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?

• A. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema
• B. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain
• C. Decreased urine specific gravity and increased urinary output
• D. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Proteinuria results from the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. The low oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. These clinical manifestations are classic signs of MCNS and help differentiate it from other renal conditions.

3. A school-age child is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis repair. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Maintain the child on a clear liquid diet for 48 hours.
• B. Administer antibiotics for 7 days.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the surgical site every 4 hours.
• D. Keep the child on NPO status for 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antibiotics for 7 days is essential postoperatively to prevent infections and complications in a child who underwent perforated appendicitis repair. This helps in reducing the risk of secondary infections and promoting healing. Clear liquid diets, warm compresses, and prolonged fasting are not the primary interventions indicated in this scenario.

4. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120mg PO daily for HTN. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. �I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning.�
• B. �I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication�
• C. �I�ll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet�
• D. �I must swallow the pill whole.�

Correct answer: D

Rationale: �SR� indicates that the drug is sustained release; therefore, the patient must swallow the pill intact, without chewing or crushing, which would result in a bolus effect. Grapefruit juice should be avoided, because it can inhibit intestinal and hepatic metabolism of the drug, thereby raising the drug level. Constipation, not loose stools, is a common side effect. Increasing fluids and dietary fiber can help prevent this adverse effect.

5. How do models of practice help therapists engage in sound therapeutic reasoning?

• A. They provide structure to guide thinking
• B. They address theory but not practice
• C. They predict the outcome of intervention
• D. They examine physical characteristics of the child

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Models of practice help therapists engage in sound therapeutic reasoning by providing a structured framework to guide their thinking process. These models offer a systematic approach that assists therapists in organizing their thoughts and decision-making processes during therapy sessions. By following a specific model, therapists can ensure they consider all relevant factors and make informed therapeutic choices, leading to effective interventions and better outcomes for their clients.

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