Nursing Elites

1. In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?

• A. The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion
• B. The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate
• C. The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse
• D. The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.

2. During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, what action is crucial for a nurse to take?

• A. Administer meperidine for pain.
• B. Apply cold compresses to the child's joints.
• C. Limit the child's fluid intake.
• D. Maintain bed rest for the child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, maintaining bed rest is crucial to reduce oxygen consumption and alleviate pain. Movement can worsen the crisis by increasing sickling of red blood cells, leading to further tissue damage and pain. Bed rest helps to improve blood flow, reduce pain, and promote healing. Administering meperidine for pain (Choice A) is not recommended due to the risk of normeperidine accumulation and potential neurotoxicity. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) may cause vasoconstriction, worsening the vaso-occlusive crisis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice C) is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential to prevent dehydration and maintain blood flow.

3. What is functional behavior analysis?

• A. Systematic observation of behavior
• B. Standardized assessment
• C. Multiple choice examination
• D. Parent-teacher questionnaire

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Functional behavior analysis involves systematically observing behavior to understand its function and context. It focuses on identifying the antecedents and consequences that maintain or influence behavior. This systematic observation helps in determining patterns, triggers, and maintaining factors of behavior. Standardized assessments (choice B) involve using specific tools or tests to measure a person's performance or behavior but do not focus on observation. Multiple choice examinations (choice C) and parent-teacher questionnaires (choice D) are not synonymous with functional behavior analysis as they do not involve direct observation of behavior for analysis.

4. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer IV push protamine sulfate
• B. Continue with the current prescription.
• C. Prepare to administer Vitamin K
• D. Call healthcare provider to increase the dose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

5. Which strategy is most likely to promote positive behavior in children?

• A. Providing flexible instructions with no consequences
• B. Limiting opportunities until the child performs adequately
• C. Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment
• D. Setting strict rules with punishments for misbehavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment is the most effective strategy to promote positive behavior in children. This approach focuses on enhancing the child's skills and abilities while fostering a supportive and encouraging atmosphere. By empowering the child and surrounding them with positivity, they are more likely to exhibit positive behaviors as they feel competent, valued, and motivated. This strategy emphasizes support and reinforcement over punitive measures, leading to long-lasting behavioral improvements.

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