ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A child with a history of seizures arrives in the emergency department (ED) in status epilepticus. Which is the priority nursing action?
- A. Take vital signs.
- B. Establish an intravenous line.
- C. Perform rapid neurologic assessment.
- D. Maintain a patent airway.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a child with a history of seizures presents in status epilepticus, the priority nursing action is to maintain a patent airway. This is crucial to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation. While taking vital signs, establishing an intravenous line, and performing rapid neurologic assessment are important, maintaining a patent airway takes precedence. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making airway management the top priority to ensure the child's safety and prevent further deterioration.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. You should offer your child high-protein meals and snacks throughout the day
- B. Your child should decrease dietary fats to less than 10% of their caloric intake
- C. Your child will need to take a 1-gram sodium chloride tablet daily throughout their lifetime
- D. You should calculate your child's carbohydrate needs based on their daily activities
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The parent should provide a well-balanced diet that is high in protein and calories for a child with cystic fibrosis. This diet helps meet the child's increased energy requirements. Offering high-protein meals and snacks throughout the day is essential to ensure adequate nutrition and energy intake for children with cystic fibrosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because children with cystic fibrosis actually need a higher fat intake for proper absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, sodium chloride supplementation is not a general recommendation for all children with cystic fibrosis, and carbohydrate needs are usually based on maintaining adequate weight and growth rather than daily activities.
3. Why is it important to share information with the family about why you are asking certain things as you evaluate the child?
- A. It helps them to understand the role of occupational therapy
- B. It establishes your goals with the family up front
- C. It communicates your level of expertise to the family
- D. It allows them to understand your point of view
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sharing information with the family about the reasons for your questions is crucial as it helps them comprehend the purpose and role of occupational therapy in the evaluation process. This transparency fosters trust, collaboration, and empowers families to actively engage in the therapy journey. Choice B is incorrect because while it is essential to establish goals with the family, the focus here is on sharing information about the evaluation process. Choice C is incorrect as the main purpose is not to showcase expertise but rather to involve the family in understanding the assessment. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal is not for the family to understand your point of view, but rather the purpose of the evaluation within the occupational therapy context.
4. During an assessment, which manifestation should a healthcare provider expect in an infant with pyloric stenosis?
- A. Bile-stained vomitus
- B. Distended abdomen
- C. Olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
- D. Painless, swollen joints
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen due to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. This mass can often be palpated during an assessment and is a key characteristic of this condition. Bile-stained vomitus may be seen in conditions such as intestinal obstruction; a distended abdomen can be a nonspecific sign of various conditions, and painless, swollen joints are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis.
5. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?
- A. Angina Pectoris
- B. Essential HTN
- C. Atrial Fibrillation
- D. Vasospastic Angina
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.
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