ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in the initial weeks of treatment?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Increased risk of suicide
- C. Hypertension
- D. Photosensitivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed an SSRI for major depressive disorder, the nurse should closely monitor for an increased risk of suicide, especially in younger patients, during the initial weeks of treatment. SSRIs may initially increase energy levels before improving mood, which can lead to a higher risk of suicide in some individuals. Weight loss is not a common side effect of SSRIs and may actually be a concern for some patients with major depressive disorder who experience appetite changes. Hypertension is not typically associated with SSRIs, and photosensitivity is not a common side effect of this class of medications.
2. Which of the following are common symptoms of major depressive disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Insomnia
- B. Feelings of hopelessness
- C. Increased energy
- D. Difficulty concentrating
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Common symptoms of major depressive disorder include insomnia, feelings of hopelessness, difficulty concentrating, and appetite changes. While individuals with major depressive disorder often experience fatigue and low energy levels, increased energy is not typically associated with this condition. Therefore, 'Increased energy' is the correct choice that doesn't apply to major depressive disorder. Choices A, B, and D are all commonly seen in individuals with major depressive disorder, making them incorrect answers.
3. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
4. During cognitive-behavioral therapy, a 12-year-old patient reports to the nurse practitioner:
- A. I was so mad I wanted to hit my mother.
- B. I thought that everyone at school hated me. That's not true. Most people like me and I have a friend named Todd.
- C. I forgot that you told me to breathe when I become angry.
- D. I scream as loud as I can when the train goes by the house.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is crucial for progress. Choice B demonstrates the patient's ability to identify and correct distorted thoughts, indicating positive advancement in therapy. This cognitive restructuring is a key component of cognitive-behavioral therapy, helping individuals develop healthier thinking patterns and coping strategies.
5. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, 'How can I go to work if I can't afford childcare?' What is the nurse's initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
- A. Determine the risks and benefits of each alternative.
- B. Formulate goals for resolving the problem.
- C. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented solution.
- D. Assess the facts of the situation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's first step should be to assess the facts of the situation. By gathering accurate information about the client's circumstances related to childcare and work, the nurse can better understand the client's needs and concerns, which is essential before proceeding with any problem-solving process. Choice A is incorrect because assessing risks and benefits comes later in the problem-solving process. Choice B is incorrect as formulating goals should follow a thorough assessment. Choice C is incorrect since evaluating outcomes happens after implementing a solution, which is premature at this stage.
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