Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a nurse observes a client showing signs of moderate anxiety. Which symptom is not typically associated with moderate anxiety?

• A. Fidgeting
• B. Laughing inappropriately
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nail biting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client with moderate anxiety, the nurse should anticipate signs such as fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting. These behaviors are common manifestations of increased stress levels. Palpitations, on the other hand, are more commonly associated with severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other symptoms of severe anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

2. Which chronic medical condition commonly triggers major depressive disorder?

• A. Pain
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic pain is a common trigger for major depressive disorder. The persistent and distressing nature of chronic pain can lead to feelings of hopelessness, helplessness, and contribute to the development of major depressive disorder in individuals experiencing it.

3. Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for social anxiety disorder?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Behavioral rehearsal
• C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• D. Medication management

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic intervention for social anxiety disorder. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety, leading to long-term symptom relief and improved coping strategies. Group therapy (choice A) can be beneficial as a complementary approach but may not be as effective as CBT for directly targeting individual cognitive and behavioral patterns. Behavioral rehearsal (choice B) is a technique used within CBT and not a standalone intervention for social anxiety disorder. Medication management (choice D) can be used as an adjunct to therapy in some cases but is not the first-line treatment for social anxiety disorder.

4. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
• B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
• C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
• D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

5. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

• A. There has been no triiodothyronine or thyroxine level evaluation ordered
• B. Neurocognitive disorders do not typically occur in African American clients
• C. The symptoms presented are more indicative of parkinsonism
• D. Dementia does not develop suddenly

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

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