Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a nurse observes a client showing signs of moderate anxiety. Which symptom is not typically associated with moderate anxiety?

• A. Fidgeting
• B. Laughing inappropriately
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nail biting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client with moderate anxiety, the nurse should anticipate signs such as fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting. These behaviors are common manifestations of increased stress levels. Palpitations, on the other hand, are more commonly associated with severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other symptoms of severe anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings shouldn't the professional expect?

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, healthcare professionals should expect findings such as amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; instead, hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, is more commonly seen in these individuals due to malnutrition and other factors.

3. An individual who has survived incest and is receiving treatment at the mental health clinic feels relief upon understanding that her anxiety and depression are:

• A. Going to be eradicated with treatment
• B. Normal and will soon pass
• C. Abnormal but will pass
• D. A normal reaction to posttraumatic events

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is important to recognize that anxiety and depression are common responses to traumatic events like incest. Understanding that these feelings are normal reactions can help validate the individual's experiences and reduce stigma. By acknowledging that anxiety and depression are expected outcomes of posttraumatic events, the mental health clinic can provide appropriate support and treatment to help the survivor cope and heal. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it reflects a compassionate and informed approach to addressing the survivor's emotional struggles.

4. When using therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression, an effective method of managing the silence is to:

• A. Engage in a quiet meditation
• B. Ask simple questions even if the patient will not answer
• C. Use the technique of making observations
• D. Simply sit quietly and leave when the patient falls asleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using the technique of making observations is an effective method of managing silence when communicating with a withdrawn patient who has major depression. This approach can encourage the patient to engage and feel understood without the pressure to respond, fostering a therapeutic connection and helping the patient open up at their own pace.

5. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

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