a nurse is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing moderate anxiety during questioning which symptoms shouldnt the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health

1. During an assessment, a nurse observes a client showing signs of moderate anxiety. Which symptom is not typically associated with moderate anxiety?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client with moderate anxiety, the nurse should anticipate signs such as fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting. These behaviors are common manifestations of increased stress levels. Palpitations, on the other hand, are more commonly associated with severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other symptoms of severe anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

2. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode include encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discussing feelings is an essential part of therapy for clients with bipolar disorder, thus discouraging verbalization of feelings is not therapeutic and should not be implemented. Choice D is incorrect because it goes against the principles of therapeutic communication and emotional expression, which are crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

4. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.

5. A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder has been admitted to the psychiatric unit after a suicide attempt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The initial priority for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Placing the client on one-to-one observation allows for constant monitoring and intervention if there are any signs of self-harm or a worsening condition. This immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further harm. Options A, C, and D involve therapeutic communication and interventions, which are important but should come after ensuring the client's safety.

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