which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder select one that doesnt ap
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023

1. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.

2. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client about the impact of psychological factors, such as excessive stress, on medical conditions. Understanding this connection is crucial in providing holistic care. It is essential to address both physiological and psychosocial aspects during the assessment to obtain a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status and needs. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects on medical conditions. Choice B is not the best response as it does not provide valuable information about the connection between psychological factors and medical conditions. Choice D is incorrect because skipping these questions could lead to missing crucial information that may impact the client's overall well-being and treatment plan.

3. When a husband accuses his wife of infidelity, which situation would indicate to the nurse the husband's use of the ego defense mechanism of projection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes their unacceptable feelings or impulses to another person. In this scenario, the husband, by admitting to having an affair with a coworker, is projecting his infidelity onto his wife, indicating the use of the projection defense mechanism. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different behavior, not projection. Choice B does not demonstrate projection but rather avoidance or denial. Choice D shows displacement of aggression, not projection.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following symptoms should the healthcare professional expect to observe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rapid heart rate is a characteristic symptom of severe anxiety due to the body's fight-or-flight response being activated. This physiological response leads to an increased heart rate to prepare the body to deal with perceived threats. Healthcare professionals should be vigilant in monitoring and managing this symptom in clients experiencing severe anxiety.

5. When a patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed escitalopram, what potential side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insomnia. Escitalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), commonly causes insomnia as a side effect. Patients should be informed about the possibility of experiencing difficulty falling or staying asleep when starting this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and hypertension are not typically associated with escitalopram use.

Similar Questions

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Which of the following is not a common symptom of major depressive disorder?
In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?
A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?

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