Nursing Elites

1. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Female
• B. 7 years old
• C. Comorbid autism diagnosis
• D. Outbursts occur at least once a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.

2. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the nurse's best response?

• A. It's just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.
• B. Why are you concerned about these types of questions?
• C. Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.
• D. We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn't imperative that we complete this section.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client about the impact of psychological factors, such as excessive stress, on medical conditions. Understanding this connection is crucial in providing holistic care. It is essential to address both physiological and psychosocial aspects during the assessment to obtain a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status and needs. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects on medical conditions. Choice B is not the best response as it does not provide valuable information about the connection between psychological factors and medical conditions. Choice D is incorrect because skipping these questions could lead to missing crucial information that may impact the client's overall well-being and treatment plan.

3. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

4. A client is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and a nurse is planning care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse exclude from the care plan?

• A. Allowing the client to perform rituals initially
• B. Discouraging the client from washing their hands
• C. Monitoring for suicidal ideation
• D. Providing a structured schedule of activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for suicidal ideation. When caring for a client with OCD, interventions should include allowing the client to perform rituals initially, setting limits on the time allowed for rituals, encouraging the client to verbalize feelings, and providing a structured schedule of activities. Monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial in assessing the client's safety and mental health status, but it is not a direct intervention specific to managing OCD symptoms.

5. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

• A. Lithium
• B. Alprazolam
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B: Alprazolam

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

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