Nursing Elites

1. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

2. A client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Administer benzodiazepines as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs every 4 hours.
• C. Provide a high-protein diet.
• D. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering benzodiazepines as prescribed is a crucial intervention in managing alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines help alleviate symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, and seizures commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. Monitoring vital signs is important to assess the client's physiological stability, but addressing the withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines is a priority to prevent severe complications. Providing a high-protein diet and encouraging fluid intake are important for overall health but do not directly manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

3. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?

• A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
• B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
• C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's symptoms and contributing factors.
• D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to determine which diagnosis to give a patient. The DSM-5 is a comprehensive manual published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) that outlines specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders. It aims to ensure accurate and consistent diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D provide inaccurate information. Hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association does not provide diagnostic labels for mental disorders. Choice C, although mentioning the assessment of patients, does not highlight the specific criteria and guidelines provided by the DSM-5 that psychiatrists use to assign diagnoses.

4. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to engage in social activities.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• D. Encourage the client to set realistic goals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode. Group therapy provides a supportive environment where the client can share experiences, learn coping strategies, and receive emotional support from peers and mental health professionals. It can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve social skills, and enhance overall well-being. Group therapy also promotes a sense of belonging and understanding, which are essential for individuals dealing with bipolar disorder and depressive symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity may worsen their symptoms, promoting social activities may not address the underlying issues effectively, and setting goals may be overwhelming during a depressive episode.

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