Nursing Elites

1. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

2. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?

• A. Discourage the client from performing rituals.
• B. Allow the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on their compulsions.
• D. Isolate the client to prevent performance of rituals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to suppress compulsive behaviors.
• B. Set strict limits on the amount of time the client can engage in compulsive behaviors.
• C. Allow the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed.
• D. Gradually limit the amount of time allotted for compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with OCD, it is essential to gradually limit the time allotted for compulsive behaviors. This intervention helps the client develop alternative coping mechanisms. Encouraging suppression or setting strict limits on compulsive behaviors can exacerbate the client's anxiety, making it crucial to approach the care plan with a gradual reduction strategy. Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed does not promote progress towards managing OCD symptoms and may reinforce maladaptive patterns of behavior.

4. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude?

• A. Continue taking medications as prescribed
• B. Avoid all social interactions
• C. Report any side effects of medications to the healthcare provider
• D. Develop a daily routine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should exclude the instruction to 'Avoid all social interactions' when providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia. It's important for individuals with schizophrenia to continue taking medications as prescribed, report any medication side effects to the healthcare provider, and develop a daily routine to promote stability. Social interactions, albeit with appropriate boundaries, can be beneficial for the client's well-being and integration into the community.

5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-weekly dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

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