when a nurse uses therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression an effective method of managing the silence is to
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023

1. When using therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression, an effective method of managing the silence is to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using the technique of making observations is an effective method of managing silence when communicating with a withdrawn patient who has major depression. This approach can encourage the patient to engage and feel understood without the pressure to respond, fostering a therapeutic connection and helping the patient open up at their own pace.

2. A client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which symptom should the nurse identify as a priority to address?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, increased blood pressure is a critical symptom that requires immediate attention. Elevated blood pressure can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular events or stroke. Monitoring and managing blood pressure in clients experiencing alcohol withdrawal is crucial to prevent adverse outcomes. Tremors, nausea and vomiting, and insomnia are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as increased blood pressure. Therefore, addressing increased blood pressure takes precedence in the management of a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal.

3. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

4. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client about the impact of psychological factors, such as excessive stress, on medical conditions. Understanding this connection is crucial in providing holistic care. It is essential to address both physiological and psychosocial aspects during the assessment to obtain a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status and needs. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects on medical conditions. Choice B is not the best response as it does not provide valuable information about the connection between psychological factors and medical conditions. Choice D is incorrect because skipping these questions could lead to missing crucial information that may impact the client's overall well-being and treatment plan.

5. A client displays signs and symptoms indicative of hypochondriasis. The nurse would initially expect to see:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypochondriasis, individuals are excessively preoccupied with and worried about having a serious illness, despite reassurance from medical professionals. This self-preoccupation is a key characteristic of hypochondriasis. 'La belle indifference' refers to a lack of concern or distress about symptoms, which is not typically seen in hypochondriasis. Fear of physicians may be present due to the individual's persistent belief in their illness despite medical reassurance. Insight into the source of their fears is usually lacking in hypochondriasis, as individuals often believe their physical symptoms are evidence of a serious illness.

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