Nursing Elites

1. When using therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression, an effective method of managing the silence is to:

• A. Engage in a quiet meditation
• B. Ask simple questions even if the patient will not answer
• C. Use the technique of making observations
• D. Simply sit quietly and leave when the patient falls asleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using the technique of making observations is an effective method of managing silence when communicating with a withdrawn patient who has major depression. This approach can encourage the patient to engage and feel understood without the pressure to respond, fostering a therapeutic connection and helping the patient open up at their own pace.

2. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?

• A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
• B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
• C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
• D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.

3. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?

• A. Discourage the client from performing rituals.
• B. Allow the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on their compulsions.
• D. Isolate the client to prevent performance of rituals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.

4. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as it is a common side effect of this medication. Weight gain can occur due to metabolic changes and increased appetite associated with risperidone use. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in a type of white blood cells, and it is not a common side effect of risperidone. Hair loss and hyperthyroidism are also not typically associated with risperidone use.

5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

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