Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a depressive episode, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?

• A. Low energy
• B. Feelings of hopelessness
• C. Insomnia or hypersomnia
• D. Difficulty concentrating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, common findings include low energy, feelings of hopelessness, insomnia or hypersomnia, and decreased appetite. Difficulty concentrating is more indicative of attention deficit disorders or cognitive impairment rather than a typical presentation of a depressive episode in bipolar disorder.

2. A client is experiencing a panic attack. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Remain with the client and offer reassurance.
• B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication as prescribed.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and slowly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a panic attack, the immediate priority for the nurse is to provide support and reassurance to the client. Remaining with the client helps establish a sense of safety and trust, which can help calm the client during an episode of panic. Administering medication, encouraging physical activity, and deep breathing techniques are beneficial interventions, but offering reassurance and support should be the initial step to address the immediate emotional distress and anxiety experienced by the client.

3. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

4. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.

5. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

• A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
• B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
• C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
• D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

Similar Questions