ATI RN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. What is the primary role of community health nurses in disaster preparedness?
- A. Developing emergency response plans
- B. Providing direct patient care
- C. Coordinating care among various providers
- D. Conducting health screenings
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Community health nurses primarily focus on developing emergency response plans in disaster preparedness. This involves creating strategies to address various aspects of a disaster, such as evacuation procedures, resource management, and communication plans. While providing direct patient care and coordinating care among providers are important aspects of nursing, in the context of disaster preparedness, the emphasis is on planning and preparedness to ensure an effective response in times of crisis.
2. Sharon has cirrhosis of the liver and develops ascites. What intervention is necessary to decrease the excessive accumulation of serous fluid in her peritoneal cavity?
- A. Restrict fluids
- B. Encourage ambulation
- C. Increase sodium in the diet
- D. Give antacids as prescribed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Restricting fluids is necessary to decrease the excessive accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity for a patient with ascites due to cirrhosis.
3. A client has a tracheostomy tube in place. When the nurse suctions the client, food particles are noted. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Elevate the head of the client's bed.
- B. Measure and compare cuff pressures.
- C. Place the client on NPO status.
- D. Request a swallow study for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When food particles are noted during suctioning of a client with a tracheostomy tube, it can indicate tracheomalacia due to constant pressure from the tracheostomy cuff. This condition may lead to dilation of the tracheal passage. To address this issue, the nurse should measure and compare cuff pressures. By monitoring these pressures and comparing them to previous readings, the nurse can identify trends and potential complications. Elevating the head of the bed, placing the client on NPO status, and requesting a swallow study will not directly address the cuff pressure issue causing food particles in the secretions.
4. A 67-year-old man is receiving androgen therapy for osteoporosis. What laboratory test should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- D. Cholesterol levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During androgen therapy, monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver dysfunction. Androgens can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to monitor enzymes such as ALT and AST. While blood glucose levels and cholesterol levels are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the primary focus during androgen therapy for osteoporosis. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) monitoring is more relevant in the context of prostate health and cancer screening, not specifically during androgen therapy for osteoporosis.
5. When caring for a client with acute renal failure, which laboratory value is most important to monitor?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Serum chloride
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute renal failure, monitoring serum potassium is crucial because impaired kidney function can lead to hyperkalemia, which can result in life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated potassium levels need close monitoring and prompt interventions to prevent serious complications.
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